A client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes insipidus is receiving a synthetic vasopressin intravenously. Which side effect of vasopressin reported by the client should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Worsening headache.
Polyuria.
Polydipsia.
Low urine specific gravity.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Worsening headache:
This option is correct. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), acts to increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby reducing urine output. However, excessive administration of vasopressin can lead to vasoconstriction, which may result in increased intracranial pressure and subsequent headaches. Therefore, worsening headache can be indicative of vasopressin overdose or adverse effects, and it should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation and appropriate management.
B) Polyuria:
Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is the opposite effect of vasopressin. While diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria due to insufficient ADH secretion or renal responsiveness to ADH, administering vasopressin should decrease urine output. Therefore, polyuria would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.
C) Polydipsia:
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is also a symptom of diabetes insipidus but is not typically associated with vasopressin administration. Vasopressin functions to decrease urine output and, consequently, reduce thirst. Therefore, polydipsia would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.
D) Low urine specific gravity:
Vasopressin administration is expected to increase urine specific gravity by promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to more concentrated urine. Therefore, low urine specific gravity would not be an expected side effect of vasopressin administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A)Holds the pen in place after the injection:
This action is appropriate. Holding the auto-injector pen in place after administering the injection allows the medication to be fully delivered into the muscle. It ensures that the full dose of epinephrine is administered, which is crucial during an emergency situation such as anaphylaxis.
B) Administers into the fleshy outer thigh:
Administering the epinephrine injection into the fleshy outer thigh is the correct technique. The thigh muscle provides a large and accessible area for injection, allowing for rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream. This action facilitates the quick onset of epinephrine’s effects, which is vital in treating anaphylaxis.
C) Cleanses the injection pen for re-use:
This action requires intervention by the nurse. Epinephrine auto-injectors are designed for single use only and should not be cleansed or reused. Reusing the injection pen can lead to contamination, incorrect dosing, or malfunction, compromising its effectiveness during subsequent emergencies. It is essential to educate the client that the auto-injector pen is for one-time use only, and a new device should be used if another dose is required.
D) Inserts the injection pen through clothing:
While it is ideal to administer the injection directly onto bare skin, inserting the injection pen through clothing is acceptable in emergency situations when immediate access to bare skin is not possible. The priority during anaphylaxis is administering the epinephrine promptly. However, if feasible, the clothing should be moved aside to allow direct contact of the injection site with the skin for optimal absorption of the medication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) When using the discus, have the client breathe out rapidly into the mouthpiece: This instruction is incorrect because with dry powder inhalers (DPIs) like the fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus, clients should exhale slowly and completely before inhaling the medication. Breathing out rapidly may cause the medication to be dispersed ineffectively, reducing its therapeutic benefit. By exhaling slowly, clients ensure better delivery of the medication to their lungs, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling asthma symptoms.
B) Explain that the client should not use the discus more than twice daily: This is the correct answer. Fluticasone propionate and salmeterol combination inhalers are typically used on a scheduled basis to maintain asthma control. Overuse of these medications can lead to increased risk of side effects, such as oral thrush or hoarseness from the steroid component (fluticasone propionate), or increased heart rate from the long-acting beta agonist (salmeterol). Moreover, exceeding the prescribed dose may not provide additional benefits in controlling asthma symptoms and can indicate inadequate control, necessitating a review of the treatment plan by the healthcare provider.
C) Offer the discus to the client for use during an acute asthma attack: Using a combination inhaler during an acute asthma attack is not appropriate. During acute exacerbations, clients should use short-acting bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol) for quick relief of symptoms. Combination inhalers like fluticasone propionate and salmeterol are intended for long-term maintenance therapy to prevent asthma symptoms, not for acute symptom relief.
D) Clients using the discus may experience decreased blood pressure: This statement is incorrect. Fluticasone propionate and salmeterol combination inhalers are not known to cause decreased blood pressure as a side effect. However, salmeterol, being a long-acting beta agonist, can potentially cause an increase in heart rate, especially when used excessively, but this is not related to blood pressure changes. It's essential to focus on the appropriate use and dosing schedule of the medication to achieve optimal asthma control and minimize adverse effects.
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