A client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes insipidus is receiving a synthetic vasopressin intravenously. Which side effect of vasopressin reported by the client should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Worsening headache.
Polyuria.
Polydipsia.
Low urine specific gravity.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Worsening headache:
This option is correct. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), acts to increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby reducing urine output. However, excessive administration of vasopressin can lead to vasoconstriction, which may result in increased intracranial pressure and subsequent headaches. Therefore, worsening headache can be indicative of vasopressin overdose or adverse effects, and it should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation and appropriate management.
B) Polyuria:
Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is the opposite effect of vasopressin. While diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria due to insufficient ADH secretion or renal responsiveness to ADH, administering vasopressin should decrease urine output. Therefore, polyuria would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.
C) Polydipsia:
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is also a symptom of diabetes insipidus but is not typically associated with vasopressin administration. Vasopressin functions to decrease urine output and, consequently, reduce thirst. Therefore, polydipsia would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.
D) Low urine specific gravity:
Vasopressin administration is expected to increase urine specific gravity by promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to more concentrated urine. Therefore, low urine specific gravity would not be an expected side effect of vasopressin administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Allow the client to take the medication up to 1 hour after breakfast:
Administering sucralfate up to 1 hour after breakfast may not provide optimal effectiveness as it should ideally be taken on an empty stomach to form a protective barrier over irritated areas in the stomach and intestines before food intake. Taking it after breakfast might not allow sufficient time for the medication to coat these areas adequately.
B) Instruct the client to take it when the meal tray is delivered:
Taking sucralfate with meals or when the meal tray is delivered is not recommended as food can interfere with its effectiveness. It is best taken on an empty stomach to allow it to coat the stomach lining without interference from food, ensuring maximum therapeutic benefit.
C) Document the client's refusal of the medication at this time:
Documenting a refusal should only be done if the client declines after receiving appropriate education and understanding. Simply refusing the client's request without providing education on the proper timing for taking sucralfate would not be appropriate.
D) Explain the need to take the medication at least 1 hour before meals:
This is the correct response. Educating the client about the importance of taking sucralfate at least 1 hour before meals ensures optimal effectiveness. This timing allows the medication to form a protective barrier over irritated areas in the stomach and intestines before food intake, maximizing its therapeutic benefit.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Urinary output equal intake:
This assessment finding suggests that the client is voiding an amount of urine equivalent to their fluid intake, indicating effective bladder emptying. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction, helping to improve urinary retention by promoting the expulsion of urine from the bladder. Equal urinary output and intake indicate that the bladder is adequately emptying, which is a positive response to bethanechol therapy.
B) No terminal urinary dribbling:
While the absence of terminal urinary dribbling may be an indicator of improved bladder emptying, it is not as definitive as assessing urinary output equal to intake. Terminal urinary dribbling refers to the involuntary loss of urine that occurs after completing urination due to incomplete emptying of the bladder. While its absence may suggest improved bladder emptying, it is not as reliable an indicator as measuring urinary output.
C) Denies stress incontinence:
The absence of stress incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure (such as coughing, sneezing, or lifting), is not directly related to the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention. Bethanechol primarily targets urinary retention by stimulating bladder contraction rather than addressing stress incontinence, which involves weakness of the pelvic floor muscles.
D) Absence of xerostomia:
Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth due to decreased saliva production and is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. Bethanechol, as a cholinergic agonist, may actually increase saliva production and is not typically associated with xerostomia. However, the absence of xerostomia does not directly indicate the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
