A patient with iron deficiency anemia who is taking oral iron supplements is evaluated by the nurse in the outpatient clinic. Which finding by the nurse is of MOST concern?
The patient takes a multivitamin tablet everyday
The patient takes an antacid with the iron to avoid nausea
The patient reports stools are black
The patient complains of occasional constipation
The Correct Answer is B
A. While taking a multivitamin can provide additional nutrients, it is generally not a cause for concern unless the multivitamin contains high doses of certain minerals that might interact negatively with iron absorption. However, this is less pressing compared to the interaction between antacids and iron.
B. Antacids can significantly interfere with the absorption of oral iron supplements, leading to inadequate treatment of iron deficiency anemia. This is the most concerning finding because it may negate the effectiveness of the iron supplementation, making it harder for the patient to improve their iron levels.
C. Black stools are a common and expected side effect of iron supplementation due to the presence of unabsorbed iron in the gastrointestinal tract. While the nurse should monitor for this, it is not inherently concerning as it indicates that the iron is being ingested.
D. Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements. Although it can be uncomfortable, it is not as critical as the potential interference caused by taking antacids. Management strategies can often alleviate this side effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Prednisone can lead to sodium and fluid retention, which can result in hypertension and edema. While this is an important consideration, it is not the most critical point to emphasize initially. Managing weight and blood pressure is essential, but there are more immediate concerns with the medication's use.
B. Long-term use of prednisone can result in changes such as fat redistribution, leading to a "moon face," buffalo hump, and increased abdominal fat. This is significant for understanding the side effects of prolonged therapy, but it is not the most urgent information for the client to know.
C. Prednisone can cause side effects such as mood changes, anxiety, or jitteriness, especially when initiating treatment or adjusting dosages. While this is relevant, the potential for emotional or psychological effects is secondary to the critical management of the medication.
D. This is the most critical point to emphasize. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can suppress the body's natural adrenal function. Abrupt discontinuation can lead to adrenal crisis, which can be life- threatening.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Leukocytosis refers to an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, typically above the normal range (approximately 4,000 to 10,000 WBCs per microliter of blood). A count of 22,000 indicates leukocytosis, which may be due to infection, inflammation, stress, or other conditions.
B. A left shift refers to an increase in immature white blood cells, particularly neutrophil precursors, in the bloodstream. It often indicates an acute infection or inflammatory response. While the WBC count of 22,000 may suggest a left shift, it does not confirm it without further analysis of the differential count of the WBCs.
C. Erythrocytosis is an increase in red blood cells (RBCs), not white blood cells. Therefore, this option is incorrect. A high WBC count does not indicate changes in red blood cell levels.
D. Neutropenia refers to a decreased number of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. Given the WBC count of 22,000, neutropenia is not applicable and is therefore incorrect.
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