An 80 year-old client, together with his daughter, arrived at the medical surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client's daughter best supports the diagnosis?
"Maybe it's just caused by aging. This usually happens at his age."
"The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn't sure what was happening."
"Dad just didn't seem to know what he was doing. He has been forgetful for years."
"Dad has always been so independent. He's lived alone for years since Mom died."
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect. While aging can contribute to cognitive changes, it is not the primary factor in the acute onset of delirium.
B) Correct. This statement highlights the acute and rapid onset of behavioral changes, which is characteristic of delirium. Delirium is an acute confessional state characterized by alterations in cognition, attention, and level of consciousness. It often has a sudden onset.
C) Incorrect. Chronic forgetfulness may be indicative of dementia or other cognitive disorders, but it does not support the acute onset seen in delirium.
D) Incorrect. Independence and living alone do not directly relate to the acute onset of delirium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This option is too vague and doesn't provide specific guidance about the detoxification process for alprazolam.
B. Frequency of usage is one factor, but it's not the only consideration in the detoxification process.
C. A planned reduction is necessary to safely taper off alprazolam and minimize withdrawal symptoms.
D. This option provides the best guidance, emphasizing the importance of a gradual and controlled tapering process for alprazolam.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.
B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.
C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.
D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.
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