An 81-yr-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the patient has new onset confusion. What should the nurse plan to do?

Give PRN lorazepam (Ativan) and cancel the transfer.

Obtain an order for restraints as needed and transfer the patient.

Notify the health care provider and postpone the transfer.

Inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

C. This allows for the patient's condition to be re-evaluated, ensuring that they receive the necessary care and attention before being transferred.

A. Benzodiazepines can cause sedation, cognitive impairment, and delirium, which may worsen the patient's condition. Canceling the transfer without addressing the underlying cause of confusion may delay appropriate management.

B. Restraints can increase agitation, anxiety, and risk of injury, and they do not address the underlying cause of confusion. Restraints should only be considered as a last resort if all other measures to ensure patient safety have been exhausted.

D. This option is not appropriate because transferring the patient without addressing the new-onset confusion could compromise patient safety. It's essential to identify and manage the underlying cause of confusion before transferring the patient to another unit.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D. Assessing the patient's level of consciousness (LOC) is essential to determine their neurological status and assess for any signs of deterioration. Changes in LOC could indicate worsening sepsis, hypoperfusion, or other underlying issues that require immediate attention.

A. Administering amiodarone, an antiarrhythmic medication, is not the first action to take in this situation. While amiodarone may be used to manage certain arrhythmias, its use should be based on a thorough assessment and specific arrhythmia diagnosis. In this case, with only three seconds of PVCs followed by sinus tachycardia, immediate administration of amiodarone is not warranted.

B. Carotid massage is not indicated in this scenario. Carotid massage is typically used to slow down or terminate supraventricular tachycardias (SVTs), such as paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). However, it is contraindicated in patients with a history of stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA), carotid artery disease, or recent myocardial infarction (MI). Furthermore, PVCs are not typically responsive to carotid massage.

C. Administering Tylenol (acetaminophen) may be appropriate in this situation. The patient's elevated temperature (101.1°F) suggests the presence of fever, which could contribute to the patient's tachycardia. Lowering the fever with acetaminophen may help reduce the heart rate and alleviate symptoms associated with fever, such as discomfort.

A. Initiation of continuous positive pressure ventilation (CPAP) B. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation C. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy with frequent suctioning D. Administration of 100% 02 by non-rebreather mask

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation are indicated in patients with severe respiratory failure who are unable to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation on their own. This intervention provides mechanical support to the patient's breathing by delivering positive pressure to the lungs via an endotracheal tube. Given the patient's respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min, low oxygen saturation (SpO2 of 78%), and increasing lethargy, endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation are the most appropriate interventions to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation.

A. CPAP is a form of non-invasive positive pressure ventilation that helps keep the airways open and improves oxygenation. However, in a patient with severe respiratory failure and impending respiratory arrest, CPAP alone may not be sufficient to adequately support ventilation and oxygenation. CPAP is typically used in patients with milder forms of respiratory failure or as a step-down therapy from invasive mechanical ventilation.

C. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy is not typically indicated in a patient with severe respiratory failure and impending respiratory arrest. While tracheostomy may be considered in certain cases for long-term ventilation or airway management, it is not the first-line intervention in an acute situation like this.

Additionally, frequent suctioning may not address the underlying cause of respiratory failure or improve oxygenation.

D. Administering 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask can help improve oxygenation temporarily. However, in a patient with severe respiratory failure and impending respiratory arrest, non-invasive oxygen therapy alone may not be sufficient to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation.

Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation are more definitive interventions to ensure adequate support for the patient's breathing.

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An 81-yr-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the patient has new onset confusion. What should the nurse plan to do?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient admitted with urosepsis and alcohol abuse had three seconds of PVCS and returns to sinus tachycardia. The patient's baseline heart rate ie 116/ min with a temperature of 101.1F, respirations of 22/min and blood pressure is 114/64. What should the nurse anticipate to do first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 78%. The patient is increasingly lethargic. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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