An 84-year-old client has been admitted to the emergency department from an extended care facility. The facility staff suspect pneumonia and it is noted that the client has a productive cough, shortness of breath, and abnormal breath sounds. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and notes an oral temperature of 97.5°F. How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding?
The client's infection is no longer localized and has become systemic.
The client likely has a cardiac health problem, not a respiratory health problem.
The client's signs and symptoms are related to hypothermia rather than infection.
The client's normothermic temperature does not rule out the presence of an infection.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Systemic infection can cause fever, but older adults often present with atypical signs, including a lack of fever, rather than the classic response.
B. The presence of a productive cough, abnormal breath sounds, and shortness of breath suggests a respiratory infection rather than a cardiac issue.
C. While older adults may be more susceptible to hypothermia, the client’s symptoms align with infection rather than hypothermia.
D. "The client's normothermic temperature does not rule out the presence of an infection" is correct because older adults may have a blunted febrile response to infection due to age-related changes in thermoregulation. An absence of fever does not exclude infection in elderly patients.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Malignancy can cause abdominal pain, but it does not typically present with acute sharp pain and involuntary guarding.
B. Aneurysms, particularly abdominal aortic aneurysms, may present with a pulsatile mass and deep, dull pain rather than sharp pain and guarding.
C. Hernias can cause pain, but they typically present with a bulging mass that increases with straining, not sharp pain with reflex guarding.
D. Peritonitis is correct because it causes severe abdominal pain, involuntary guarding, and rebound tenderness due to inflammation of the peritoneum. Reflex guarding is a protective mechanism indicating peritoneal irritation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A 3-year-old with fever, rash, and sore throat should be evaluated promptly, but these symptoms do not necessarily indicate an immediate life-threatening emergency.
B. A 45-year-old man with chest pain and diaphoresis for 1 hour is the priority because these are classic symptoms of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) or myocardial infarction (MI). Immediate emergency assessment and intervention are required.
C. A 14-year-old girl crying about a possible pregnancy needs emotional support and counseling but does not require immediate emergency intervention.
D. A 20-year-old man with a 3-inch shallow laceration on his leg needs wound care, but his condition is not life-threatening and does not require emergency assessment.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.