An adolescent boy is admitted to the emergency department following a bee sting. He arrives with a body rash and 30 minutes later becomes short of breath. The nurse obtains vital signs with a blood pressure of 90/52 mm Hg, heart rate 130 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 40 breaths/minute. The client is exhibiting clinical manifestations of which type of immune reaction?

IgE-mediated response

Cell-mediated hypersensitivity

Autoimmune response

Type II hypersensitivity

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: An IgE-mediated (Type I) hypersensitivity reaction, like anaphylaxis, occurs post-bee sting, with rapid onset of rash, shortness of breath, hypotension, and tachycardia. IgE antibodies trigger mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine, causing vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and systemic symptoms, matching the client’s acute presentation.

Choice B reason: Cell-mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity involves T-cells, causing delayed reactions like contact dermatitis, not rapid systemic symptoms. Bee sting reactions are immediate, driven by IgE, not T-cells. Rash, hypotension, and respiratory distress indicate anaphylaxis, not a delayed cell-mediated response.

Choice C reason: Autoimmune responses involve self-directed antibodies, as in lupus, not triggered by external allergens like bee stings. The client’s acute rash, hypotension, and respiratory distress suggest an IgE-mediated anaphylactic reaction, not an autoimmune process, which is unrelated to acute allergen exposure.

Choice D reason: Type II hypersensitivity involves antibody-mediated cytotoxicity, as in transfusion reactions, not allergen-induced systemic symptoms. Bee sting reactions are IgE-driven, causing immediate anaphylaxis with rash and hypotension, not cytotoxic damage, making Type II inappropriate for the client’s acute presentation.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Diclofenac, an NSAID, can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, leading to anemia. Pale appearance and fatigue suggest blood loss. Reviewing hemoglobin levels is critical to confirm anemia, as low hemoglobin impairs oxygen delivery, exacerbating fatigue and requiring immediate intervention to address potential bleeding.

Choice B reason: Glucose levels are unrelated to diclofenac’s common side effects. Fatigue may occur in hypoglycemia, but diclofenac does not typically affect glucose metabolism. Pale appearance and fatigue are more indicative of anemia from NSAID-related bleeding, making hemoglobin a more urgent lab value to review.

Choice C reason: Total protein levels reflect nutritional status or liver function but are not directly linked to diclofenac’s side effects. Fatigue and pallor suggest anemia from gastrointestinal bleeding, a known NSAID risk. Hemoglobin is more critical to assess, as it directly correlates with the client’s symptoms.

Choice D reason: Sodium levels influence fluid balance but are not typically altered by diclofenac. Fatigue and pallor point to anemia from potential bleeding, not electrolyte imbalance. Hemoglobin review is prioritized, as diclofenac’s gastrointestinal side effects are more likely to cause blood loss than sodium disturbances.

A. Reduction in number of liquid stools B. Improved mental status C. Ability to ambulate independently D. Increase in urine output

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Lactulose increases stool frequency and liquidity to excrete ammonia in hepatic encephalopathy. A reduction in liquid stools would indicate reduced effectiveness, as the medication’s cathartic effect is essential for ammonia removal. This is not the expected therapeutic response, as increased bowel movements are desired.

Choice B reason: Lactulose reduces blood ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy by promoting its excretion in stool, improving mental status. Ammonia accumulation causes neurological symptoms like confusion. Improved cognition and alertness are the primary therapeutic goals, making this the expected response to effective lactulose therapy.

Choice C reason: Ambulation ability is unrelated to lactulose’s mechanism in hepatic encephalopathy. While improved mental status may indirectly aid mobility, lactulose directly targets ammonia reduction, not physical function. This is not the primary therapeutic response, as the medication addresses neurological, not musculoskeletal, symptoms in this condition.

Choice D reason: Lactulose does not directly affect urine output, as it acts in the gastrointestinal tract to excrete ammonia. While hydration status may influence urine, the medication’s primary effect is on bowel movements and ammonia reduction, not renal function, making this an incorrect therapeutic expectation.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking diclofenac for rheumatoid arthritis. During a clinic visit, the client appears pale and reports increasing fatigue. Which of the client’s serum laboratory values is most important for the nurse to review?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client has been administered lactulose for several days. Which therapeutic response should the nurse expect for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which technique should the nurse use when assessing for early signs of rheumatoid arthritis?

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which laboratory test should the nurse prioritize to confirm the diagnosis?

A client presents to the emergency department with acute abdominal pain and a provisional diagnosis of pancreatitis. The client reports nausea and vomiting from laboratory studies. Which information is most valuable in reporting the client’s status to the healthcare provider?

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of anemia. Which dietary recommendation should the nurse provide?

A client with myasthenia gravis receives a new prescription for pyridostigmine. Which information should the nurse obtain prior to administering the medication?

The nurse is reviewing risk factors for cholelithiasis in a client’s history. Which factor most significantly increases the client’s risk for developing gallstones?

A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports epigastric pain. Which action should the nurse take first?