An adolescent experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis reports right knee pain. Which is the most appropriate intervention?
Applying a warm soak to the knee
Administering Acetaminophen
Apply a compression wrap to the right leg
Decreasing the amount of intravenous fluids
The Correct Answer is B
A. Applying a warm soak to the knee: Heat application is generally not recommended during a vaso-occlusive crisis because it can worsen inflammation and pain.
B. Administering Acetaminophen.
Vaso-occlusive crises are a common complication of sickle cell disease, and they can lead to severe pain. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an appropriate choice for pain management in this situation. It is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help alleviate pain.Pain control is the priority in these situations.
C. Compression wraps can potentially exacerbate ischemia and increase the risk of complications.
D. Adequate hydration is essential during a crisis to prevent further sickling of red blood cells. Reducing fluids could exacerbate the condition
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Lordosis: Lordosis is an excessive inward curvature of the spine, typically seen in the lower back. It is often referred to as "swayback."
B. Torticollis: Torticollis is a condition where the head is tilted to one side and may be rotated to the opposite side. It typically affects the neck muscles and is not related to lateral curvature of the spine.
C. Scoliosis.
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. It is characterized by an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine, which can lead to an "S" or "C" shape of the spine. Scoliosis can occur during adolescence, and routine physical examinations may reveal this condition.
D. Kyphosis: Kyphosis is an excessive outward curvature of the spine, which can result in a rounded or hunched back, often seen in the upper back or thoracic spine.
In summary, the lateral curvature of the spine observed in this adolescent should be documented as scoliosis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Shunted past the pulmonary circulation, causing pulmonary hypoxia: This option is not the primary reason for dyspnea in PDA. While there is shunting, it doesn't directly cause pulmonary hypoxia.
B. Circulated through the lungs again, causing pulmonary circulatory congestion: This option is partially correct but does not address the primary reason for dyspnea, which is the bypassing of the left side of the heart.
C. Circulated through the ductus from the pulmonary artery to the aorta, bypassing the left side of the heart.
In patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), a fetal blood vessel called the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth. This allows oxygenated blood from the left atrium to be shunted directly from the aorta to the pulmonary artery, bypassing the normal route through the left side of the heart and into the systemic circulation. The shunting of oxygenated blood back into the pulmonary circulation can lead to increased pulmonary blood flow and circulatory congestion, causing symptoms such as dyspnea.
D. Shunted past cardiac arteries, causing myocardial hypoxia: PDA primarily affects the pulmonary circulation and left side of the heart, not the coronary arteries. Myocardial hypoxia is not the primary mechanism of dyspnea in PDA.
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