The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old who is lethargic and irritable after brain tumor surgery. She is noted to have dry mucous membranes and high urinary output. She has had 2 generalized seizures in the past hour. Which of the following is likely causing these symptoms?
Hypernatremia and Diabetes Insipidus
Hyponatremia and Diabetes insipidus
Hyponatremia and Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)
Hypernatremia and Syndrome of inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Hypernatremia and Diabetes Insipidus.
The symptoms described, including dry mucous membranes, high urinary output, and seizures, are consistent with hypernatremia, which is an elevated level of sodium in the blood, and Diabetes Insipidus (DI).
Diabetes Insipidus is a condition where the body is unable to properly regulate water balance, leading to excessive thirst and urination. In the presence of DI, water loss is excessive, leading to dehydration, increased sodium levels, and potentially seizures.
B. Hyponatremia and Diabetes Insipidus: This option doesn't align with the symptom of hypernatremia (elevated sodium levels) but suggests low sodium levels (hyponatremia), which would have different symptoms.
C. Hyponatremia and Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH): This option also suggests low sodium levels (hyponatremia) and a different condition (SIADH) characterized by water retention and dilution of the blood, which is not consistent with the described symptoms.
D. Hypernatremia and Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH): This option suggests high sodium levels (hypernatremia) but includes SIADH, which would not result in high urinary output. SIADH is characterized by excessive retention of water, leading to low urinary output and concentrated urine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Applying a warm soak to the knee: Heat application is generally not recommended during a vaso-occlusive crisis because it can worsen inflammation and pain.
B. Administering Acetaminophen.
Vaso-occlusive crises are a common complication of sickle cell disease, and they can lead to severe pain. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an appropriate choice for pain management in this situation. It is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help alleviate pain.Pain control is the priority in these situations.
C.Compression wraps can potentially exacerbate ischemia and increase the risk of complications.
D.Adequate hydration is essential during a crisis to prevent further sickling of red blood cells. Reducing fluids could exacerbate the condition
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Introducing new foods every day does not allow sufficient time to monitor for adverse reactions.
B. Waiting 8 to 10 days between introducing new foods is a longer interval than typically recommended. It may unnecessarily delay the introduction of a variety of foods to the infant's diet.
C. 5 to 7 days.
When introducing new foods to an infant, it's important to do so gradually to monitor for any potential allergic reactions or sensitivities. Waiting 5 to 7 days between introducing new foods allows for observation of any adverse reactions, such as allergies or digestive issues. This approach helps in identifying the specific food responsible for any adverse reactions and ensures the infant's safety.
D. Waiting 2 to 3 days is too short of an interval to adequately monitor for adverse reactions. Waiting 5 to 7 days provides a better balance between introducing new foods and monitoring for potential issues.
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