An advanced practice nurse has performed a Rinne test on a new patient. During the test, the patient reports that air-conducted sound is louder than bone-conducted sound. How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding?

The patient has sensorineural hearing loss

The patient is at risk for tinnitus

The patient’s hearing is likely normal

The patient likely has otosclerosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale
Sensorineural hearing loss is a type of hearing loss in which the root cause lies in the inner ear or sensory organ (cochlea and associated structures) or the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Sensorineural hearing loss can be mild, moderate, severe, or profound, and it affects the ability to hear faint sounds or understand speech. However, in the Rinne test, if the air-conducted sound is louder than the bone-conducted sound, it indicates that the patient’s hearing is likely normal.
Choice B rationale
Tinnitus is the perception of noise or ringing in the ears. It is a common problem that affects about 15 to 20 percent of people and is especially common in older adults. However, the Rinne test is not used to diagnose tinnitus. It is used to compare air and bone conduction of sound.
Choice C rationale
In a normal Rinne test, air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC). This is referred to as a positive Rinne test. If a patient reports that air-conducted sound is louder than bone-conducted sound, it suggests that the patient’s hearing is likely normal.
Choice D rationale
Otosclerosis is a condition that affects the bones in the middle ear, causing hearing loss. It is a common cause of conductive hearing loss, particularly in young adults. However, in otosclerosis, bone conduction (BC) is better than air conduction (AC), which is referred to as a negative Rinne test.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["4 "]

Explanation

The nurse is preparing to administer 40 mg of furosemide intravenously. The available furosemide is 10 mg/1 mL.

Step 1 is: Calculate the dose in mL using the formula: (Desired dose ÷ Available dose) × Volume.

Step 2 is: Substitute the given values into the formula: (40 mg ÷ 10 mg) × 1 mL = 4 mL. The nurse should administer 4 mL per dose.

A. Intravenous diazepam B. Oral lorazepam C. Oral phenytoin D. Intravenous phenobarbital

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Status epilepticus is a medical emergency characterized by continuous or rapid-fire seizures. Intravenous diazepam is one of the first-line treatments for this condition. It works by enhancing the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), a neurotransmitter that inhibits brain activity, thereby helping to stop the seizure.
Choice B rationale
Oral lorazepam is not typically used to halt a seizure immediately due to its slower onset of action compared to intravenous administration.
Choice C rationale
Oral phenytoin is not typically used to halt a seizure immediately. It is more commonly used for the long-term management of seizures.
Choice D rationale
Intravenous phenobarbital is a second-line treatment for status epilepticus, used when first- line treatments such as diazepam are ineffective.

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An advanced practice nurse has performed a Rinne test on a new patient. During the test, the patient reports that air-conducted sound is louder than bone-conducted sound. How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer 40 mg of furosemide intravenously. The available furosemide is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.

Correct Answer is ["4 "]

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client who is in status epilepticus. What medication should the nurse anticipate administering to halt the seizure immediately?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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