An antepartum nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse initiate seizure precautions?
A client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension
A client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole
A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture
The Correct Answer is A
A. Correct. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension, which is a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hr apart, or once with signs of end-organ damage. Severe gestational hypertension can lead to preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can progress to eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication that involves seizures.
B. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole, which is an abnormal growth of placental tissue that resembles grape-like clusters. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
C. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding, which can have various causes such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma. Vaginal bleeding can indicate a potential hemorrhage, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
D. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture, which means that the client has bacteria in their vagina or rectum that can cause infection in the newborn during delivery. A positive group B streptococcal culture requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.This action is the best first step as it engages staff members directly in identifying the underlying causes of staffing difficulties. Involving staff in the problem-solving process can lead to more effective solutions and promote buy-in for any changes.
B.While supporting staff is important, this step should come after understanding the issues and gathering input. Addressing resistance without first identifying the root causes may not be effective.
C.While communication is important, presenting options without first gathering input and understanding the current issues may not address the root problems. A meeting should follow the investigation and data collection.
D.Notifying staff of changes is important, but it should come after the issues are investigated and a plan is formed. Implementing changes without understanding staff concerns may lead to further dissatisfaction.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A is incorrect because IV tubing for total parenteral nutrition should be changed every 24 hours to prevent infection.
B is incorrect because abdominal distention is not an expected effect of total parenteral nutrition. It could indicate a complication such as fluid overload or bowel obstruction.
C is incorrect because gastric residual is not relevant for total parenteral nutrition, which bypasses the gastrointestinal tract.
D is correct because weight measurement is an important indicator of fluid balance and nutritional status for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
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