An emergency department nurse triages a group of clients who were injured in a school bus crash. Which of the following clients should the nurse have the provider evaluate first?
A client who has a forehead wound that is bleeding copiously
A client who has a compound fracture of the femur and is crying in pain
A client who was unconscious at the scene and now reports diplopia and nausea
A client who has several missing teeth and a swollen, ecchymotic upper lip
The Correct Answer is C
A. A client who has a forehead wound that is bleeding copiously. Although bleeding may appear dramatic, most scalp wounds bleed heavily and can be controlled with pressure. This is not immediately life-threatening if the client is stable.
B. A client who has a compound fracture of the femur and is crying in pain. This is a serious injury with risk for blood loss and infection, but the client is alert and stable enough to express pain, suggesting less immediate neurologic risk than other clients.
C. A client who was unconscious at the scene and now reports diplopia and nausea. This client likely has a head injury with signs of increased intracranial pressure or concussion (diplopia = double vision, nausea, and prior loss of consciousness). These are neurological red flags and require immediate evaluation to prevent deterioration.
D. A client who has several missing teeth and a swollen, ecchymotic upper lip. While painful and concerning, oral trauma without airway compromise is less urgent than potential brain injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Lorazepam. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and the first-line medication for treating status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action. It acts by enhancing the effect of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, helping to quickly stop continuous seizure activity.
B. Carbamazepine. Carbamazepine is used for long-term seizure control, particularly in partial seizures, but it is not appropriate for emergency treatment of status epilepticus due to its slower onset of action and oral route of administration.
C. Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is also used for chronic seizure management, including generalized and partial seizures. However, it is not effective in acute seizure emergencies and is typically not administered intravenously.
D. Clonazepam. While clonazepam is a benzodiazepine used to manage seizures, it is generally used for maintenance therapy. It lacks the fast-acting IV formulation preferred in treating status epilepticus, unlike lorazepam.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Premature atrial complexes. These are early electrical impulses originating in the atria that cause premature heartbeats, but they do not consistently lengthen the P-R interval. The P-R interval usually remains within normal limits unless another condition is present.
B. First-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. A constant P-R interval longer than 0.20 seconds (normal range: 0.12–0.20 seconds) is characteristic of a first-degree AV block. A P-R interval of 0.35 seconds indicates a prolonged conduction delay through the AV node, consistent with this dysrhythmia.
C. Complete heart block. In complete (third-degree) heart block, there is no consistent relationship between P waves and QRS complexes, and the P-R interval is not constant. This is not consistent with a stable, prolonged P-R interval.
D. Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is marked by irregularly irregular rhythm and absent, unidentifiable P waves, not a consistent P-R interval. The atria are quivering, not contracting in a coordinated way.
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