An increase in which serum lab value indicates to the nurse that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a client at risk for coronary artery disease?

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

Prothrombin time (PT).

Creatine phosphokinase (CK)

High-density lipoprotein (HDL).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL): Atorvastatin's primary effect is to decrease LDL cholesterol levels. A decrease in LDL levels would indicate the medication is working as intended, not an increase.
B. Prothrombin time (PT): PT is a measure of blood clotting, which is not directly affected by atorvastatin. This value is more relevant for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.

C. Creatine phosphokinase (CK): CK levels can be used to monitor for muscle damage or side effects related to statin use. An increase in CK levels would suggest muscle damage, not the effectiveness of the statin.
D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL): Atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, particularly low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, which is a key target in reducing the risk of coronary artery disease (CAD). While the primary goal of atorvastatin is to lower LDL cholesterol, an increase in HDL cholesterol (often termed "good" cholesterol) is also desirable as it can help reduce the risk of CAD. Therefore, an increase in HDL is a positive indicator that the medication is having a beneficial effect.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.

A. Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness before applying the new patch. B. Apply the new patch in a different location after removing the original patch. C. Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider about the client's pain resolution. D. Place the patch on the client's shoulder and leave both patches in place for 12 hours.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness before applying the new patch: This action is unnecessary because the client reports no pain. Administering an oral analgesic would not be appropriate when the client denies pain and the previous fentanyl patch is intact.
B) Apply the new patch in a different location after removing the original patch: This is the correct action. Fentanyl patches should be replaced with new ones in a different location to prevent overdosing and ensure proper absorption. The old patch should be removed to avoid accumulation of excess medication.
C) Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider about the client's pain resolution: There is no need to consult the healthcare provider or remove the patch if the client denies pain and the patch is intact. The issue is with replacing the patch rather than evaluating pain.
D) Place the patch on the client's shoulder and leave both patches in place for 12 hours: This is unsafe. Applying a new patch without removing the old one can lead to overdose due to excessive fentanyl. The old patch must be removed before placing a new one.

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An increase in which serum lab value indicates to the nurse that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a client at risk for coronary artery disease?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

When preparing to apply a scheduled fentanyl transdermal patch, the nurse notes that the previously applied patch is intact on the client's upper back and the client denies pain. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client is receiving IV vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the medication. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?

The healthcare provider prescribes the antibiotic tetracycline HCl for an adult client that arrived at an outpatient clinic. Which instruction should the nurse Include in the teaching plan for this client?

Prior to administration of the initial dose of the gastrointestinal (GI) agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the patient?

Digoxin and furosemide were prescribed for a client with chronic heart failure, and the home health nurse is evaluating the client's self-care knowledge of these drugs. Which statement indicates that the client has a good understanding about the use of these drugs?

Before administering the initial dose of sumatriptan succinate to a client with a migraine headache, it is most important to determine if the client's history includes which problem?