When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Nausea.

Stridor.

Headache.

Pruritus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections: Simvastatin is a medication used primarily to manage cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Frequent vaginal infections are not directly related to cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk. Therefore, this client is unlikely to benefit from education about simvastatin.
B) A 50-year-old male with a history of angina: Simvastatin is a statin medication prescribed to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. Since angina is a symptom of coronary artery disease, a condition often related to high cholesterol levels, this client would benefit from education about simvastatin, which can help manage cholesterol and potentially reduce cardiovascular risk.
C) An 18-year-old pregnant female with type 1 diabetes mellitus: Statins, including simvastatin, are generally contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. Additionally, this client’s primary condition of type 1 diabetes mellitus would not typically be managed with simvastatin alone. Therefore, this client is not the target for simvastatin education.
D) A 75-year-old male with bone cancer: While simvastatin is used for managing cholesterol and preventing cardiovascular events, bone cancer is not directly related to cholesterol levels. The primary focus for this client would be managing cancer-related symptoms and treatments rather than cholesterol levels. Thus, this client would not benefit from education about simvastatin.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Administer the medication: Acarbose is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that should be taken with the first bite of a meal to effectively manage postprandial blood glucose levels. Administering it before the meal is inappropriate as it can lead to inadequate glucose control.
B. Notify the healthcare provider: While notifying the healthcare provider might be necessary if there are significant issues, it is not the immediate action needed in this situation. The priority is to manage the timing of the medication relative to the meal.
C. Hold the medication until the meal trays arrive: Acarbose should be taken with food to work effectively in controlling blood glucose levels after meals. If the meal is delayed, the medication should be held until the meal is ready to ensure proper administration.
D. Obtain another finger stick blood glucose level: Rechecking the blood glucose level does not address the issue of the timing of the acarbose administration. The focus should be on ensuring the medication is taken with the meal.

A. Until a smaller angle can be restored. B. For long-term control of normal eye pressure. C. For long-term control of pain and swelling. D. Until the excess pressure is reduced.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Until a smaller angle can be restored: Open-angle glaucoma is characterized by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure due to the obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, not by a narrow angle. The treatment aims to control eye pressure rather than restore the angle, which is more relevant to acute angle-closure glaucoma.
B. For long-term control of normal eye pressure: Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. The prescribed eye drops help in managing intraocular pressure over the long term to prevent vision loss.
C. For long-term control of pain and swelling: Open-angle glaucoma typically does not present with pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to control intraocular pressure rather than address pain or swelling, which are not primary symptoms of this condition.
D. Until the excess pressure is reduced: While initial treatment aims to reduce intraocular pressure, open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing use of medications to maintain normal pressure levels and prevent progression of the disease. Discontinuing the medication after initial pressure reduction can lead to a return of elevated intraocular pressure.

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When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is assessing the eyes of a client who just received mydriatic eye drops. Which physiological function of the eye will not respond during the therapuetic period after administration of the eye drops?

To detect common untoward effects of phenytoin, the nurse should assess a client with a seizure disorder for which sign or symptom?

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The nurse is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education packet about simvastatin?

An increase in which serum lab value indicates to the nurse that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a client at risk for coronary artery disease?