When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Nausea.

Stridor.

Headache.

Pruritus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections: Simvastatin is a medication used primarily to manage cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Frequent vaginal infections are not directly related to cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk. Therefore, this client is unlikely to benefit from education about simvastatin.
B) A 50-year-old male with a history of angina: Simvastatin is a statin medication prescribed to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. Since angina is a symptom of coronary artery disease, a condition often related to high cholesterol levels, this client would benefit from education about simvastatin, which can help manage cholesterol and potentially reduce cardiovascular risk.
C) An 18-year-old pregnant female with type 1 diabetes mellitus: Statins, including simvastatin, are generally contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. Additionally, this client’s primary condition of type 1 diabetes mellitus would not typically be managed with simvastatin alone. Therefore, this client is not the target for simvastatin education.
D) A 75-year-old male with bone cancer: While simvastatin is used for managing cholesterol and preventing cardiovascular events, bone cancer is not directly related to cholesterol levels. The primary focus for this client would be managing cancer-related symptoms and treatments rather than cholesterol levels. Thus, this client would not benefit from education about simvastatin.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Expresses that they cannot get enough air to breathe: While this is concerning, it is less specific than a respiratory rate finding for opioid overdose.
B. Respiratory rate of 7 breaths/minute: This indicates severe respiratory depression, a critical sign of opioid overdose, which necessitates immediate administration of naloxone.
C. Intercostal retractions and bilateral wheezing on auscultation: These signs suggest respiratory distress but do not directly indicate an opioid overdose.
D. Pulse oximeter reading of 89% on room air: While low, this reading does not specifically indicate opioid overdose unless accompanied by respiratory depression.

A. Withhold the medication until the client's breakfast tray is available on the unit. B. Consult with a pharmacist about scheduling the dose one hour after the client eats. C. Instruct the client that it is necessary to take nothing but water with the medication. D. Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to bring the client a glass of low fat milk.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Withhold the medication until the client’s breakfast tray is available on the unit: Withholding the medication until food is available is not necessary, as risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure proper absorption. Food can interfere with the medication's effectiveness.
B. Consult with a pharmacist about scheduling the dose one hour after the client eats: This option is not suitable as risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, and delaying the dose until after eating would compromise the medication's effectiveness.
C. Instruct the client that it is necessary to take nothing but water with the medication: Risedronate must be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes afterward. Milk or other beverages can interfere with the absorption of risedronate.
D. Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to bring the client a glass of low-fat milk: This is not appropriate, as risedronate should be taken with water only to ensure proper absorption. Milk can reduce the effectiveness of the medication.

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When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump postoperatively. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to administer a prescribed PRN dose of naloxone?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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