When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Nausea.
Stridor.
Headache.
Pruritus.
The Correct Answer is B
A) 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections: Simvastatin is a medication used primarily to manage cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Frequent vaginal infections are not directly related to cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk. Therefore, this client is unlikely to benefit from education about simvastatin.
B) A 50-year-old male with a history of angina: Simvastatin is a statin medication prescribed to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. Since angina is a symptom of coronary artery disease, a condition often related to high cholesterol levels, this client would benefit from education about simvastatin, which can help manage cholesterol and potentially reduce cardiovascular risk.
C) An 18-year-old pregnant female with type 1 diabetes mellitus: Statins, including simvastatin, are generally contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. Additionally, this client’s primary condition of type 1 diabetes mellitus would not typically be managed with simvastatin alone. Therefore, this client is not the target for simvastatin education.
D) A 75-year-old male with bone cancer: While simvastatin is used for managing cholesterol and preventing cardiovascular events, bone cancer is not directly related to cholesterol levels. The primary focus for this client would be managing cancer-related symptoms and treatments rather than cholesterol levels. Thus, this client would not benefit from education about simvastatin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Warfarin: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term anticoagulation, but it is not used for reversing the effects of heparin. They are different classes of anticoagulants with distinct reversal agents.
B. Vitamin K: Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin.
C. Protamine sulfate: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin overdose. It neutralizes the effects of heparin and is used to quickly reverse its anticoagulant effects in case of an overdose or excessive bleeding.
D. Diphenhydramine HCl: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and has no role in reversing anticoagulants.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.