When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Nausea.

Stridor.

Headache.

Pruritus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections: Simvastatin is a medication used primarily to manage cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Frequent vaginal infections are not directly related to cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk. Therefore, this client is unlikely to benefit from education about simvastatin.
B) A 50-year-old male with a history of angina: Simvastatin is a statin medication prescribed to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. Since angina is a symptom of coronary artery disease, a condition often related to high cholesterol levels, this client would benefit from education about simvastatin, which can help manage cholesterol and potentially reduce cardiovascular risk.
C) An 18-year-old pregnant female with type 1 diabetes mellitus: Statins, including simvastatin, are generally contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. Additionally, this client’s primary condition of type 1 diabetes mellitus would not typically be managed with simvastatin alone. Therefore, this client is not the target for simvastatin education.
D) A 75-year-old male with bone cancer: While simvastatin is used for managing cholesterol and preventing cardiovascular events, bone cancer is not directly related to cholesterol levels. The primary focus for this client would be managing cancer-related symptoms and treatments rather than cholesterol levels. Thus, this client would not benefit from education about simvastatin.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Administer both prescribed medications as scheduled: Given that the client's total calcium level is already elevated (14 mg/dL), administering additional calcium carbonate could exacerbate hypercalcemia. Calcitriol, a form of vitamin D, can also increase calcium levels, so administering it without addressing the high calcium level could worsen the condition.
B. Hold the calcium carbonate, but administer the calcitriol as scheduled: This option is not appropriate because calcitriol can further increase calcium levels, potentially worsening hypercalcemia. Both medications should be reviewed, and their administration should be adjusted according to the client's current calcium status.
C. Hold the calcitriol, but administer the calcium carbonate as scheduled: Holding calcitriol alone would not address the potential for further increasing calcium levels. Calcium carbonate should also be withheld since the client is already hypercalcemic.
D. Hold both medications until contacting the healthcare provider: This is the most appropriate action. The client's elevated calcium level indicates hypercalcemia, which requires careful management. The healthcare provider should be contacted to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action to avoid worsening hypercalcemia.

A. Until a smaller angle can be restored. B. For long-term control of normal eye pressure. C. For long-term control of pain and swelling. D. Until the excess pressure is reduced.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Until a smaller angle can be restored: Open-angle glaucoma is characterized by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure due to the obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, not by a narrow angle. The treatment aims to control eye pressure rather than restore the angle, which is more relevant to acute angle-closure glaucoma.
B. For long-term control of normal eye pressure: Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. The prescribed eye drops help in managing intraocular pressure over the long term to prevent vision loss.
C. For long-term control of pain and swelling: Open-angle glaucoma typically does not present with pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to control intraocular pressure rather than address pain or swelling, which are not primary symptoms of this condition.
D. Until the excess pressure is reduced: While initial treatment aims to reduce intraocular pressure, open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing use of medications to maintain normal pressure levels and prevent progression of the disease. Discontinuing the medication after initial pressure reduction can lead to a return of elevated intraocular pressure.

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When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Prior to administering oral doses of calcitriol and calcium carbonate to a client with hypoparathyroidism, the nurse notes that the client's total calcium level is 14 mg/dl (3.5 mmol/l) Which action should the nurse implement? Reference Range: Calcium 8.5 to 10.5 mg/dL (2.25 to 2.75 mmol/L)

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

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