An infant is brought to the emergency department with poor skin turgor, weight loss, irritability, and tachycardia. The nurse analyzes the data to suggest:
Sodium excess
Overhydration
Dehydration
Calcium excess
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as sodium excess is not likely to cause the symptoms of poor skin turgor, weight loss, irritability, and tachycardia in an infant. Sodium excess, or hypernatremia, is a condition where the blood sodium level is too high, which can result from excessive intake or loss of water. The symptoms of sodium excess may include thirst, dry mouth, confusion, seizures, or coma.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as overhydration is not likely to cause the symptoms of poor skin turgor, weight loss, irritability, and tachycardia in an infant. Overhydration, or hypervolemia, is a condition where the body has too much fluid, which can result from excessive intake or retention of water. The symptoms of overhydration may include edema, weight gain, shortness of breath, or crackles in the lungs.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as dehydration is the most likely cause of the symptoms of poor skin turgor, weight loss, irritability, and tachycardia in an infant. Dehydration is a condition where the body loses more fluid than it takes in, which can result from vomiting, diarrhea, fever, or inadequate intake of water. The symptoms of dehydration may include dry skin, sunken eyes, decreased urine output, or lethargy.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as calcium excess is not likely to cause the symptoms of poor skin turgor, weight loss, irritability, and tachycardia in an infant. Calcium excess, or hypercalcemia, is a condition where the blood calcium level is too high, which can result from hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, or excessive intake of vitamin D or calcium. The symptoms of calcium excess may include nausea, constipation, muscle weakness, or kidney stones.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is correct, as asking about the child's contacts over the last three weeks can help the nurse identify the possible source of infection and the risk of transmission. Rubella is a viral infection that spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with an infected person. The incubation period of rubella is 14 to 21 days, meaning that the child could have been exposed to the virus up to three weeks before developing symptoms.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as asking about the child's immunizations is not the most effective way to determine how the child was exposed to the virus. Although immunization can prevent rubella infection, it is not 100% effective, and some children may still get the disease despite being vaccinated. The nurse should also consider other factors, such as the child's medical history, travel history, and exposure to other people with rash or fever.
Choice C reason: This statement is incorrect, as asking about the medications given to the child is not the most effective way to determine how the child was exposed to the virus. Medications can help relieve the symptoms of rubella, such as fever, rash, or joint pain, but they do not affect the transmission or the course of the infection. The nurse should focus on the epidemiological aspects of the disease, such as the mode of transmission, the incubation period, and the contagious period.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as asking about the onset of the rash is not the most effective way to determine how the child was exposed to the virus. The rash of rubella usually appears 14 to 17 days after exposure, and lasts for about three days. However, the child can be contagious from seven days before to seven days after the rash appears, meaning that the child could have been exposed to the virus up to four weeks before or after the rash. The nurse should ask about the child's contacts during this period, not just the rash.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Slowing the heart rate does not increase diastolic filling time. Diastolic filling time is the time during which the ventricles are relaxed and filling with blood. Slowing the heart rate would decrease the cardiac output and worsen the heart failure.
Choice B reason: Increasing urine output does decrease pulmonary congestion, but it is not the primary effect of Captopril. Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, which blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. This reduces the blood pressure and the afterload on the heart. Diuretics are the drugs that increase urine output and reduce fluid overload.
Choice C reason: This is the correct choice. Decreasing the afterload means reducing the resistance that the heart has to overcome to pump blood to the body. This lowers the blood pressure and the workload on the heart, which improves the cardiac function and reduces the symptoms of heart failure.
Choice D reason: Increasing serum potassium does not improve cardiac performance. In fact, high levels of potassium can cause cardiac arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Captopril can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium) as a side effect, which is why patients on this drug need to monitor their potassium levels and avoid potassium supplements or salt substitutes.
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