The nurse is explaining Tanner staging to an adolescent and her mother. Which statement best describes Tanner staging?
Predictable stages of puberty that are based on chronological age.
Staging of puberty based on the sexual behavior of the child.
Staging of puberty based on the increase in height and weight.
Predictable stages of puberty that are based on primary and secondary sexual characteristics.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as Tanner staging is not based on chronological age, but on the physical development of the child. Children may enter and progress through puberty at different ages, depending on their genetic, environmental, and nutritional factors.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as Tanner staging is not based on the sexual behavior of the child, but on the appearance of the external genitalia, breasts, and pubic hair. Sexual behavior is influenced by many factors, such as social, cultural, and psychological factors, and does not necessarily correlate with the stage of puberty.
Choice C reason: This statement is incorrect, as Tanner staging is not based on the increase in height and weight, but on the maturation of the reproductive organs and secondary sex characteristics. Height and weight are affected by many factors, such as nutrition, health, and genetics, and do not necessarily reflect the stage of puberty.
Choice D reason: This statement is correct, as Tanner staging is based on the predictable stages of puberty that are based on primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Primary sexual characteristics are the development of the internal and external reproductive organs, such as the ovaries, testes, uterus, penis, and vagina. Secondary sexual characteristics are the changes that occur in other parts of the body, such as the breasts, pubic hair, axillary hair, voice, and body shape.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is correct, as standard precautions are the minimum level of infection control practices that should be applied to all patients, regardless of their diagnosis or presumed infection status. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment (PPE), safe handling of sharps and contaminated items, and environmental cleaning. Standard precautions are sufficient for most patients with HIV, unless they have other infections that require additional precautions.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as droplet precautions are not required for patients with HIV, unless they have other infections that are transmitted by respiratory droplets, such as influenza, pertussis, or meningitis. Droplet precautions include wearing a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the patient, placing the patient in a private room or cohorting with other patients with the same infection, and limiting the movement of the patient outside the room.
Choice C reason: This statement is incorrect, as contact precautions are not required for patients with HIV, unless they have other infections that are transmitted by direct or indirect contact, such as Clostridioides difficile, scabies, or herpes simplex virus. Contact precautions include wearing gloves and gowns when entering the patient's room, placing the patient in a private room or cohorting with other patients with the same infection, and dedicating patient-care equipment to the patient or disinfecting it before use on another patient.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as airborne precautions are not required for patients with HIV, unless they have other infections that are transmitted by airborne particles, such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox. Airborne precautions include wearing a respirator or N95 mask when entering the patient's room, placing the patient in a negative-pressure isolation room with the door closed, and limiting the movement of the patient outside the room.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Slowing the heart rate does not increase diastolic filling time. Diastolic filling time is the time during which the ventricles are relaxed and filling with blood. Slowing the heart rate would decrease the cardiac output and worsen the heart failure.
Choice B reason: Increasing urine output does decrease pulmonary congestion, but it is not the primary effect of Captopril. Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, which blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. This reduces the blood pressure and the afterload on the heart. Diuretics are the drugs that increase urine output and reduce fluid overload.
Choice C reason: This is the correct choice. Decreasing the afterload means reducing the resistance that the heart has to overcome to pump blood to the body. This lowers the blood pressure and the workload on the heart, which improves the cardiac function and reduces the symptoms of heart failure.
Choice D reason: Increasing serum potassium does not improve cardiac performance. In fact, high levels of potassium can cause cardiac arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Captopril can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium) as a side effect, which is why patients on this drug need to monitor their potassium levels and avoid potassium supplements or salt substitutes.
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