An infertile couple has used at-home ovulation testing using basal body temperature without conceiving.
The nurse understands that what will be used first to treat this infertile couple?
Selective estrogen receptor modulator clomiphene
Surgery to reduce endometriosis.
Intrauterine insemination with sperm from the husband
Assisted reproductive technologies (e.g. invitro fertilization)
The Correct Answer is A
If a couple has used at-home ovulation testing with basal body temperature and has not conceived, the first treatment option may depend on the underlying cause of infertility. However, the most common first-line treatment for infertility is selective estrogen receptor modulator clomiphene. This medication stimulates ovulation and can increase the chances of conception.
Surgery to reduce endometriosis may be considered if endometriosis is the underlying cause of infertility. However, surgery is not always successful and may not be the first option.
Intrauterine insemination (IUI) with sperm from the husband is another option that may be considered if the male partner has mild to moderate sperm abnormalities or if there is unexplained infertility. IUI involves placing washed sperm directly into the uterus during ovulation.
Assisted reproductive technologies (ART), such as in vitro fertilization (IVF), may be considered if other treatments have been unsuccessful or if there are more severe fertility issues. ART involves combining eggs and sperm outside of the body and transferring the resulting embryo(s) into the uterus.
The choice of treatment will depend on the underlying cause of infertility, the age of the couple, and other factors that may impact fertility. It is important for the couple to consult with a healthcare provider who specializes in fertility treatments to determine the best course of action.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The nurse should identify the risk factor of the client giving birth to their first child at age 40 as this is associated with an increased risk of certain pregnancy complications and health problems for both the mother and the baby, such as gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, preterm delivery, and chromosomal abnormalities in the baby. Breastfeeding, experiencing peri-menopausal symptoms, and menarche at age 13 are not significant risk factors in this context. However, it is important to note that each of these factors may be relevant to the client's overall health history and should be documented and taken into consideration as appropriate.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Leukopenia: Chemotherapy with paclitaxel and carboplatin can cause myelosuppression, leading to a significant decrease in white blood cells (leukopenia). This makes the client more susceptible to infections and is a common and serious adverse effect that the nurse should monitor closely.
B. Metabolic acidosis: This condition is less commonly associated with chemotherapy agents like paclitaxel and carboplatin. It usually results from conditions like renal failure, diabetic ketoacidosis, or severe diarrhea rather than chemotherapy.
C. Hyperphosphatemia: This electrolyte imbalance is not a typical adverse effect of paclitaxel and carboplatin. It is more commonly associated with conditions like chronic kidney disease or excessive phosphate intake.
D. Respiratory alkalosis: This condition is typically caused by hyperventilation and is not a known direct adverse effect of paclitaxel and carboplatin chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for more common side effects related to chemotherapy, such as leukopenia.
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