The nurse is providing preoperative education to a client at high risk for breast cancer who is scheduled for an incisional biopsy is being done instead of excisional biopsy.
Which answer by the nurse is appropriate?
“An incisional biopsy is performed because it is known to be less painful and more accurate than other forms of testing.
“An incisional biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis and so that special studies can be done that will help determine the best treatment”
“An incisional biopsy is performed to assess the potential for recovery from a mastectomy.”
“An incisional biopsy is performed on clients who are younger than age 40 and who are otherwise healthy.”
“An incisional biopsy is performed on clients who are younger than age 40 and who are otherwise healthy.”
The Correct Answer is B
“An incisional biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis and so that special studies can be done that will help determine the best treatment”
The appropriate answer is b because an incisional biopsy is typically performed to obtain a tissue sample from a suspicious mass to confirm a diagnosis and to help determine the best treatment approach. It is not performed primarily to assess potential for recovery or to select a less painful or more accurate test, nor is it limited to a specific age group or health status. The nurse should provide accurate and relevant information to the client to help them understand the purpose and benefits of the procedure, and to alleviate any concerns or fears they may have.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Ovarian cancer risk is increased in women who have not been pregnant, have a family history of ovarian cancer, have a personal history of breast or colon cancer, and have inherited gene mutations such as BRCA1 and BRCA2.
Hormonal contraceptives, having children, and the age at which a woman had her first child have been associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer. However, these factors do not completely eliminate the risk. It is still possible for women taking hormonal contraceptives, women who have had children, and women who had their first child at an early age to develop ovarian cancer
.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Lower abdominal pelvic pain is a common clinical manifestation of ovarian cancer. Ovarian cancer may not cause any noticeable symptoms in its early stages, but as the cancer grows and spreads, symptoms may develop. Pelvic pain or pressure is a common symptom, along with bloating, difficulty eating or feeling full quickly, and urinary urgency or frequency. Other symptoms may include fatigue, indigestion, back pain, constipation, and menstrual irregularities. A fish-like odor (a symptom of bacterial vaginosis) increased abdominal girth,
fever and chills, and leukocytosis are not typically associated with ovarian cancer. However, leukocytosis (an elevated white blood cell count) may be present in response to inflammation or infection. It is important for the nurse to assess the client's symptoms thoroughly and report any concerning findings to the healthcare provider.
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