An intensive care nurse is aware of the need to identify clients who may be at risk of developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which ICU client most likely faces the highest risk of DIC?

A client with extensive burns

A client who has a diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome

A client who suffered multiple trauma in a workplace accident

A client who is being treated for septic shock

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Extensive burns can trigger DIC through tissue damage and inflammation, releasing procoagulants that activate clotting. However, the risk is lower than in septic shock, as burns primarily cause localized injury, and systemic coagulopathy is less intense unless complicated by secondary infection or severe hypoperfusion.

Choice B reason: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) may contribute to DIC through inflammation and hypoxia, but it is not the primary driver. ARDS affects lung function, and coagulopathy is secondary to underlying causes like sepsis, which has a more direct and potent effect on widespread clotting activation.

Choice C reason: Multiple trauma increases DIC risk through tissue injury and blood loss, activating coagulation pathways. However, septic shock has a higher risk due to systemic infection driving intense inflammatory and coagulative responses, consuming platelets and clotting factors more aggressively, leading to a greater likelihood of DIC.

Choice D reason: Septic shock poses the highest DIC risk, as systemic infection triggers massive cytokine release and endothelial damage, activating the coagulation cascade. This leads to widespread microthrombi, consuming platelets and clotting factors, causing both thrombosis and bleeding, making septic shock the most likely precipitant in ICU clients.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: A sodium level of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range and not diagnostic of Addison’s disease. This condition, caused by adrenal insufficiency, typically leads to hyponatremia due to reduced aldosterone, which decreases sodium reabsorption, making a normal sodium level uncharacteristic of the disease.

Choice B reason: A glucose level of 100 mg/dL is normal and not specific to Addison’s disease. Hypoglycemia is more common due to cortisol deficiency, which impairs gluconeogenesis. A normal glucose level does not support the diagnosis, as it does not reflect the metabolic disruptions of adrenal insufficiency.

Choice C reason: A blood pressure of 135/90 mm Hg is elevated but not diagnostic of Addison’s disease. The condition typically causes hypotension due to reduced aldosterone and cortisol, leading to low blood volume and vascular tone. Hypertension suggests another etiology, not adrenal insufficiency.

Choice D reason: A potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, a diagnostic sign of Addison’s disease. Aldosterone deficiency reduces potassium excretion in the kidneys, leading to elevated serum potassium. This, combined with hyponatremia and hypotension, is a hallmark of adrenal insufficiency, making hyperkalemia a key diagnostic finding.

A. Bleeding B. Chronic alcohol use C. Menorrhagia D. Iron malabsorption

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Bleeding, particularly gastrointestinal, is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in males and postmenopausal females. Blood loss reduces iron stores, as hemoglobin contains iron, and chronic bleeding (e.g., from ulcers or colon cancer) depletes iron faster than dietary intake can replenish, leading to anemia.

Choice B reason: Chronic alcohol use may contribute to anemia through nutritional deficiencies or liver disease, but it is not the primary cause. Alcohol can impair folate metabolism or cause gastrointestinal bleeding, but direct blood loss is a more common and significant driver of iron deficiency in these populations.

Choice C reason: Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, is a common cause of iron deficiency anemia in premenopausal women, not males or postmenopausal females. After menopause, menstruation ceases, eliminating this as a cause, making bleeding from other sources, like the gastrointestinal tract, more relevant.

Choice D reason: Iron malabsorption, as in celiac disease or gastric surgery, can cause iron deficiency but is less common than bleeding. Malabsorption impairs dietary iron uptake, but chronic blood loss, especially from gastrointestinal sources, is the leading cause in males and postmenopausal females due to higher prevalence.

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An intensive care nurse is aware of the need to identify clients who may be at risk of developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which ICU client most likely faces the highest risk of DIC?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse assesses a client who has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which of the following is a diagnostic sign of this disease?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in male clients and postmenopausal female clients is:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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