An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?
Administer with meals and a bedtime snack.
1000, 1600, 2200, 0400.
0800, 1200, 1600, 2000.
Give in equally divided doses during waking hours.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack. This schedule does not ensure that the medication is administered at equally spaced intervals throughout the day, as required for 4 divided doses.
B. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400. This schedule is not practical or feasible, as it includes a dose in the middle of the night.
C. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000. This schedule provides equally divided doses at intervals that are practical and coincide with the client's waking hours.
D. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours. While this option mentions administering doses during waking hours, it does not specify specific times for administration, unlike option C.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. An adult client with no postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed. This client is stable with no drainage from the Jackson-Pratt drain, indicating that there is no immediate issue that needs to be addressed. The bulb is compressed, suggesting proper function. Therefore, this client can be safely assessed last.
B. An adult client with a rectal tube draining clear, pale red liquid drainage. The presence of pale red drainage can indicate a potential issue that needs monitoring, such as bleeding or other complications, thus requiring a more timely assessment.
C. An older client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube. A distended abdomen and lack of drainage could indicate a blockage or other serious issue that needs immediate attention.
D. An older client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing, but no drainage in the Hemovac. Dark red drainage can indicate active bleeding, which is a critical issue that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent complications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A: Using a different sphygmomanometer would not address the underlying cause of the spasms, which is likely not related to the equipment itself.
B: Taking the blood pressure in the other arm may avoid the spasms temporarily, but it does not address the potential underlying medical issue causing the spasms.
C: Administering an antianxiety medication is not indicated as the spasms are not necessarily related to anxiety; they could be a sign of a physiological condition.
D: Reviewing the client's serum calcium level is the most appropriate action. The spasms described are indicative of Trousseau's sign, which is associated with hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can cause increased neuromuscular excitability, leading to spasms. It is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the spasms, which in this case could be a calcium deficiency.
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