A client experiencing withdrawal from the benzodiazepine alprazolam is demonstrating severe agitation and tremors. Which is the best initial nursing action?
Instruct the family about withdrawal symptoms.
Initiate seizure precautions.
Obtain a serum drug screen.
Administer naloxone per PRN protocol.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Instruct the family about withdrawal symptoms. While educating the family about withdrawal symptoms is important for support and understanding, it is not the best initial action when the
client is experiencing severe agitation and tremors. Safety measures should be prioritized.
B. Initiate seizure precautions. Severe agitation and tremors can be signs of benzodiazepine withdrawal, which may progress to seizures. Initiating seizure precautions, such as ensuring a
safe environment, padding side rails, and having emergency medications and equipment readily available, is the priority to prevent injury.
C. Obtain a serum drug screen. While obtaining a serum drug screen may be necessary to confirm benzodiazepine withdrawal, it is not the immediate action needed to address the client's current symptoms and prevent potential harm.
D. Administer naloxone per PRN protocol. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose and is not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal. Administering naloxone would not be appropriate or effective in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Lymphangitis is characterized by inflammation of the lymphatic vessels and is often associated with red streaks and tenderness. The absence of inflammation and tenderness suggests a different etiology.
B. Malignancy is suggested by the presence of a large, nontender, hardened lymph node. These characteristics are commonly associated with metastatic spread of cancer to the lymph nodes. Further diagnostic testing, such as biopsy, would be warranted to confirm malignancy.
C. Viral infection may cause lymphadenopathy, but typically, the lymph nodes are tender and may be enlarged but not necessarily hardened. The absence of tenderness and the hardened consistency of the lymph node suggest a different etiology.
D. Bacterial infection can cause lymphadenopathy, which may be tender and enlarged, but the nontender, hardened nature of the lymph node in this case is more indicative of malignancy
rather than a bacterial infection.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Providing counseling about contraceptives may not address the immediate concern of managing genital herpes or the risks associated with multiple sexual partners.
B. Remaining non-judgmental and assuring the client of confidentiality is crucial to establishing trust and ensuring open communication. This approach encourages the client to share accurate information about their sexual history and current concerns, which is essential for effective STI management and prevention.
C. Informing the client that complications will not result from reinfection is inaccurate and may minimize the seriousness of the STI. Genital herpes can cause recurrent outbreaks and potentially lead to complications such as neonatal herpes if transmitted to a newborn during childbirth.
D. Clarifying that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse is true but does not address the client's specific situation or provide guidance on managing genital herpes and reducing the risk of transmission.
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