An older adult is admitted to the emergency department after working outside during extremely high temperatures. The client is lethargic and diagnosed with heat stroke. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Administer acetaminophen for pain
Remove the client’s clothing
Place the client in a hot bath
Encourage the client to drink a glass of cold water
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Acetaminophen reduces fever by acting on the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center but is ineffective for heat stroke, a hyperthermic emergency caused by environmental heat overload. It does not address core temperature elevation or systemic effects like dehydration and organ dysfunction, making it inappropriate for immediate heat stroke management.
Choice B reason: Removing the client’s clothing facilitates evaporative and convective cooling, critical in heat stroke where core body temperature exceeds 40°C. This intervention enhances heat dissipation from the skin, reducing the risk of organ damage from hyperthermia. It is a primary nursing action to lower body temperature effectively and safely.
Choice C reason: Placing a client with heat stroke in a hot bath would exacerbate hyperthermia, worsening organ damage and cardiovascular strain. Heat stroke requires rapid cooling via cold water immersion or evaporative methods, not additional heat exposure, making this intervention dangerous and contraindicated in this life-threatening condition.
Choice D reason: Encouraging oral fluids like cold water is inappropriate for a lethargic heat stroke patient, who may have impaired swallowing or consciousness, risking aspiration. Intravenous fluids are preferred to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances safely, as oral intake does not address the urgent need for rapid cooling and systemic stabilization.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, is not the primary target of antidepressants like SSRIs or tricyclics. These drugs focus on monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine). GABAergic drugs, like benzodiazepines, treat anxiety, not depression. This statement is inaccurate, as antidepressants do not enhance GABA efficacy in the limbic system or cortex.
Choice B reason: SSRIs and tricyclics block reuptake of serotonin and/or norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft, increasing their availability to stimulate postsynaptic receptors. This enhances monoamine signaling, alleviating depressive symptoms. This statement is accurate, as reuptake inhibition is the shared mechanism across these antidepressant classes, targeting mood-regulating neurotransmitters.
Choice C reason: Dopamine receptor antagonism is not a mechanism of antidepressants but is associated with antipsychotics like haloperidol. While some antidepressants indirectly affect dopamine, it is not their primary action. This statement is inaccurate, as SSRIs and tricyclics focus on serotonin and norepinephrine, not dopamine receptor blockade.
Choice D reason: Antagonizing serotonin receptors would reduce serotonin signaling, counteracting antidepressant effects. SSRIs and tricyclics increase serotonin availability via reuptake inhibition, not receptor blockade. This statement is inaccurate, as blocking serotonin receptors is not a mechanism of action for these depression treatments.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Humulin R (regular insulin) has an onset of 30-60 minutes and peaks at 2-3 hours. Taking a snack at 0900-0930, immediately after injection, is too early, as insulin action is minimal, and glucose from the meal may cause hyperglycemia before insulin peaks, making this timing inappropriate.
Choice B reason: Humulin R peaks at 2-3 hours (1100-1200 for a 0900 dose), when hypoglycemia risk is highest due to maximum glucose uptake. A snack or meal at 1100-1130 provides glucose to counter insulin’s peak effect, preventing low blood sugar, making this the most appropriate timing.
Choice C reason: By 1400-1430, Humulin R’s effect (duration 5-8 hours) is waning, reducing hypoglycemia risk. A snack at this time is less critical, as insulin’s glucose-lowering action is declining. This timing is less effective for preventing hypoglycemia compared to the peak action period at 1100-1130.
Choice D reason: At 1700-1730, Humulin R’s effect is nearly gone (duration 5-8 hours), making hypoglycemia unlikely from the 0900 dose. A snack this late is irrelevant to the insulin’s action, as glucose levels are stabilized, making this timing inappropriate for preventing hypoglycemia.
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