An older client who is agitated, dyspneic, orthopneic, and using accessory muscles to breathe is admitted for further treatment. Initial assessment includes a heart rate of 128 beats/minute and irregular, respirations of 38 breaths/minute, blood pressure of 168/100 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. Wheezes and crackles are noted throughout bilateral lung fields. An hour after the administration of furosemide 60 mg IV push (IVP), which assessments should the nurse obtain to determine the client's response to treatment? Select all that apply.
Skin elasticity.
Pain scale.
Lung sounds.
Oxygen saturation.
Urinary output.
Correct Answer : C,D,E
Choice A reason: Skin elasticity is not an immediate indicator of the client's response to diuretic treatment. It is more commonly used to assess hydration status and overall skin condition rather than the effectiveness of a diuretic.
Choice B reason: Pain scale is important for assessing the client's comfort level, but it does not directly measure the effectiveness of furosemide in improving respiratory status and reducing fluid overload.
Choice C reason: Lung sounds should be assessed to determine if there is an improvement in the client's respiratory status after the administration of furosemide. Reduction in wheezes and crackles would indicate decreased fluid in the lungs and improved breathing.
Choice D reason: Oxygen saturation is crucial to monitor as it provides information on the client's oxygenation status. An improvement in oxygen saturation levels indicates effective relief of pulmonary congestion and better gas exchange after the diuretic treatment.
Choice E reason: Urinary output is a direct measure of the effectiveness of furosemide, as it promotes diuresis to remove excess fluid from the body. Increased urinary output indicates that the medication is working to reduce fluid overload.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Effectively managing pain, discomfort, and diarrhea is important for the client’s quality of life, but it does not address the long-term goal of preventing disease progression and complications.
Choice B reason: Ensuring careful fluid and electrolyte balance is critical, especially during acute exacerbations, but it is more of an immediate concern rather than a long-term goal.
Choice C reason: Reducing the number and severity of acute exacerbations is the most important long-term goal for clients with chronic ulcerative colitis. This goal focuses on maintaining remission, preventing complications, and improving overall prognosis by minimizing flare-ups.
Choice D reason: Maintaining a diet that is high in fibber content can be beneficial for overall health but may not always be suitable for clients with ulcerative colitis, especially during flare-ups. It is not the most critical long-term goal for managing the condition.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Applying soft restraints to all extremities is not appropriate during a seizure as it can increase the risk of injury. The priority is to ensure the client's safety by preventing injury without restraining them.
Choice B reason: Removing objects that could cause injury is crucial. During a seizure, the client may move unpredictably, and any nearby objects could pose a risk of harm. Clearing the area ensures the client has a safe space to have the seizure without additional hazards.
Choice C reason: Placing pillows around the client's head can provide some protection, but it is not as immediately effective or necessary as removing potentially harmful objects from the surrounding area. Ensuring a clear and safe environment is the primary concern.
Choice D reason: Administering oxygen per nasal cannula is not the first priority during a seizure. While maintaining oxygenation is important, the immediate focus should be on ensuring the client's physical safety by removing dangerous objects. Once the seizure subsides, appropriate respiratory support can be provided if needed.
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