An unresponsive client was brought to the emergency room and had an arterial blood gas drawn. Ten minutes later, the laboratory calls with the following results: PaO2 74%, pH 7.22, PaCO2 85 mm Hg, and HCO3 23 mEq/L. The nurse interprets the results as indicating which imbalance?
Respiratory acidosis without compensation
Metabolic acidosis with full compensation
Respiratory acidosis with partial compensation
Metabolic acidosis without compensation
The Correct Answer is C
A. Respiratory acidosis without compensation: The pH of 7.22 indicates acidosis, but the HCO3 level of 23 mEq/L suggests that compensation is occurring because the HCO3 is within the normal range for respiratory acidosis.
B. Metabolic acidosis with full compensation: The high PaCO2 level is more indicative of respiratory issues, not metabolic acidosis. Additionally, compensation for metabolic acidosis would show elevated HCO3.
C. Respiratory acidosis with partial compensation: The elevated PaCO2 and low pH indicate respiratory acidosis. The normal HCO3 level suggests partial compensation by the kidneys.
D. Metabolic acidosis without compensation: The elevated PaCO2 and normal HCO3 suggest respiratory acidosis rather than metabolic acidosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Crush the medication and administer it through the tube: Crushing sustained-release medications can disrupt their intended release mechanism, leading to potential overdose or ineffective treatment.
B. Provide the medication orally for the client to swallow: This option is not suitable since the client has a gastrostomy tube, and oral administration is not appropriate.
C. Ask the healthcare provider to prescribe the medication as an elixir for tube administration: This is the correct approach, as an elixir form of the medication would be appropriate for administration through the gastrostomy tube without altering its release properties.
D. Dissolve the medication in water and administer it through the tube: Dissolving sustained-release tablets can compromise their intended release mechanism, which may lead to complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Midazolam (Versed): This is a benzodiazepine used for sedation. It is not typically used in the post-anesthesia care unit unless there is a need for additional sedation or anxiolysis, which is not indicated based on the scenario.
B. Naloxone (Narcan): This is the correct choice. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. If the vital signs indicate respiratory depression or decreased oxygen saturation potentially due to opioid medications used during surgery, naloxone would be administered.
C. Atropine (Atropen): This medication is used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate) and is not typically indicated based on vital signs trends without specific symptoms.
D. Dantrolene (Dantrium): This medication is used to treat malignant hyperthermia, a rare but serious condition often triggered by certain anesthetics. It would be indicated if there were signs of this condition, such as a high fever and muscle rigidity, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
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