Anxiolytics, known as Benzodiazepines, are especially useful in which behavioral health patient treatment?
Long-term treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Short-term treatment of panic attacks.
Long-term treatment of agoraphobia.
Short-term treatment of depression.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason : Benzodiazepines are not typically used for the long-term treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder due to the risk of dependence and because other medications, such as SSRIs, are more effective for long-term management⁵.
Choice B reason : Benzodiazepines are effective for the short-term management of panic attacks due to their rapid onset of action, which can quickly alleviate acute symptoms of anxiety and panic⁵⁹.
Choice C reason : Long-term treatment of agoraphobia generally involves psychotherapy and SSRIs or SNRIs rather than benzodiazepines, which can lead to dependence and are not recommended for long-term use⁵.
Choice D reason : Benzodiazepines are not the first-line treatment for depression and are generally not used for this purpose. Antidepressants and psychotherapy are the standard treatments for depression⁵.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: The statement that the antidote for warfarin is protamine is incorrect. The primary antidote for warfarin is Vitamin K, and in cases of significant bleeding, prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) or fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may be used¹². Protamine is used as an antidote for heparin, not warfarin¹.
Choice B reason: Observing the client for manifestations of hemorrhage is a critical nursing action when administering warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and one of the major risks associated with its use is bleeding. The nurse should monitor for signs such as unusual bruising, petechiae, hematuria, tarry stools, or any other indications of internal or external bleeding⁷⁸.
Choice C reason: Monitoring the client's aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is not typically associated with warfarin therapy. Warfarin's effect is monitored through the prothrombin time (PT) and the International Normalized Ratio (INR), not aPTT, which is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy⁴⁵.
Choice D reason: Warfarin should not be administered along with NSAIDs without careful consideration and monitoring due to the increased risk of bleeding. NSAIDs can affect platelet function and gastrointestinal mucosa, leading to an elevated risk of gastrointestinal bleeding when taken with warfarin¹¹¹².
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason : This statement is misleading. While heparin does need to reach a therapeutic level to be effective, it does not directly dissolve existing clots. Heparin's primary action is to prevent the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots by inhibiting certain factors in the coagulation cascade.
Choice B reason : While a pharmacist can provide detailed information about medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to educate and inform the client about the effects of their treatment. Therefore, this response would not be appropriate.
Choice C reason : This is the most accurate response. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of fibrin, which is essential for clot formation. It does not have the ability to dissolve existing clots but can prevent new ones from forming and existing ones from getting larger.
Choice D reason : Oral medications such as warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) may be used after heparin to maintain anticoagulation; however, they also do not dissolve clots. The body's natural fibrinolytic system is responsible for breaking down clots over time.
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