At 22 weeks' gestation, a client is diagnosed with placenta previa. The doctor tells the client that the placenta may move away from the cervix as the pregnancy progresses. This is classified as what type of previa?
Partial.
Complete.
Marginal.
Low-lying.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Partial placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially covers the cervix. It usually does not resolve and may cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.
Choice B Reason: Complete placenta previa is a condition where the placenta completely covers the cervix. It is a serious condition that requires cesarean delivery and may cause life-threatening hemorrhage.
Choice C Reason: Marginal placenta previa is a condition where the edge of the placenta reaches the margin of the cervix. It may also cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.
Choice D Reason: Low-lying placenta previa is a condition where the placenta is near the cervix, but not covering it. It may resolve spontaneously as the uterus grows and the placenta moves upward.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Continuing to monitor and document fetal heart rate. This is an inadequate response that does not address the urgency of the situation or intervene to prevent fetal distress or demise.
Choice B Reason: Changing the mother's position to left lateral and giving oxygen by nasal cannula. This is a partial response that may improve maternal-fetal blood flow and oxygenation, but it does not resolve the cord compression or facilitate delivery.
Choice C Reason: With a sterile glove, maintaining pressure to lift the presenting part and emergently notifying the provider for a STAT C-section. This is an appropriate response that aims to reduce the cord compression by elevating the fetal head away from the cord and prepare for an immediate cesarean delivery.
Choice D Reason: Bolusing the patient with 1000cc lactated ringers. This is an irrelevant response that does not address the cause of the problem or improve fetal outcome.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with one acceleration to 155 for 15 seconds within 30 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. A non-reactive NST may suggest fetal hypoxia, distress, or sleep, but it does not necessarily indicate a problem. A non-reactive NST may require further testing or stimulation to elicit a reactive result.
Choice B Reason A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with two accelerations to 160 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. This is because this strip meets the criteria for a reactive NST, which is a non-invasive test that evaluates fetal well- being and oxygenation by measuring the fetal heart rate response to fetal movements. A reactive NST is defined as having at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate that are at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline and last for at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period.
Choice C Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 130 with two accelerations to 135 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. The accelerations in this strip are not sufficient in amplitude, as they are only 5 beats per minute above the baseline, instead of at least 15 beats per minute.
Choice D Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 150 with two accelerations to 160 for 10 seconds within 20 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. The accelerations in this strip are not sufficient in duration, as they last only for 10 seconds, instead of at least 15 seconds.

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