At 22 weeks' gestation, a client is diagnosed with placenta previa. The doctor tells the client that the placenta may move away from the cervix as the pregnancy progresses. This is classified as what type of previa?
Partial.
Complete.
Marginal.
Low-lying.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Partial placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially covers the cervix. It usually does not resolve and may cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.
Choice B Reason: Complete placenta previa is a condition where the placenta completely covers the cervix. It is a serious condition that requires cesarean delivery and may cause life-threatening hemorrhage.
Choice C Reason: Marginal placenta previa is a condition where the edge of the placenta reaches the margin of the cervix. It may also cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.
Choice D Reason: Low-lying placenta previa is a condition where the placenta is near the cervix, but not covering it. It may resolve spontaneously as the uterus grows and the placenta moves upward.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Taking the newborn to the nursery for the initial assessment. This is an ineffective intervention that disrupts parental atachment by separating the mother and the newborn. It also deprives the newborn of the benefits of skin to skin contact and breastfeeding.
Choice B Reason: Allowing the mother a chance to rest without the baby immediately after delivery. This is an unnecessary intervention that delays parental atachment by postponing the first contact between the mother and the newborn. It also ignores the mother's desire and readiness to hold and feed her baby.
Choice C Reason: Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer to do the initial assessment. This is an outdated intervention that hinders parental atachment by creating a physical barrier between the mother and the newborn. It also exposes the newborn to potential risks such as dehydration, hyperthermia, or eye damage.
Choice D Reason: Placing the newborn on the maternal abdomen and doing the initial assessment. This is because this intervention facilitates skin to skin contact, eye contact, and bonding between the mother and the newborn. It also enhances breastfeeding initiation, thermoregulation, and maternal-infant atachment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Possible Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS). This is an unlikely condition for this newborn, as MAS occurs when fetal stool (meconium) enters into the lungs before or during birth, causing airway obstruction, inflammation, and infection. MAS usually affects term or post-term infants who experience fetal distress or hypoxia in utero.
Choice B Reason: Possible polycythemia. This is an unrelated condition for this newborn, as polycythemia refers to an abnormally high number of red blood cells in the blood, which can increase blood viscosity and impair circulation.
Polycythemia may occur in infants who have delayed cord clamping, intrauterine growth restriction, maternal diabetes, or high altitude exposure.
Choice C Reason: Possible Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn (TTN). This is a less serious condition than RDS, as TTN is a mild respiratory problem that results from delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid after birth. TTN causes rapid breathing, nasal flaring, grunting, and mild cyanosis. It usually resolves within 24 to 48 hours after birth.
Choice D Reason: Possible Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS). This is a serious condition that requires immediate intervention and treatment, as RDS can lead to life-threatening complications such as pulmonary hemorrhage, pneumothorax, or bronchopulmonary dysplasia. RDS causes respiratory distress, nasal flaring, retractions, grunting, and central cyanosis. It usually occurs within minutes to hours after birth.
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