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The patient is having fetal heart rate decelerations. An amnioinfusion has been ordered for the patient to alleviate the decelerations. The nurse understands that the type of decelerations that will be alleviated by amnioinfusion is:
Select one:

Late decelerations.

Moderate decelerations.

Variable decelerations.

Early decelerations.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason: Late decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates uteroplacental insufficiency, which can reduce blood ﬂow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Late decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of uterine contractions and return to baseline after the end of contractions. Amnioinfusion is not eﬀective for late decelerations, as it does not address the underlying cause of uteroplacental insufficiency, which may be due to maternal hypertension, diabetes, preeclampsia, or placental abruption.

Choice B Reason: Moderate decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a non-existent type of fetal heart rate patern, as there is no such term as moderate decelerations. The term moderate refers to the category of fetal heart rate variability, which is a measure of the ﬂuctuations in fetal heart rate around the baseline. Moderate variability indicates normal fetal oxygenation and well-being, while absent or minimal variability indicates fetal hypoxia or distress.

Choice C Reason: Variable decelerations. This is because variable decelerations are a type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates cord compression, which can reduce blood ﬂow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Variable decelerations are characterized by abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in onset, depth, and duration, and do not have a consistent relationship with uterine contractions. Amnioinfusion is a procedure that involves infusing saline or lactated Ringer's solution into the amniotic cavity through a transcervical catheter, which can relieve cord compression by increasing the volume of amniotic ﬂuid and cushioning the cord. Amnioinfusion can improve fetal oxygenation and reduce variable decelerations.

Choice D Reason: Early decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates head compression, which can stimulate the vagus nerve and slow down the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin with the onset of uterine contractions and return to baseline with the end of contractions. Early decelerations are benign and do not require intervention, as they reﬂect normal fetal head descent and progress of labor. Amnioinfusion is not indicated for early decelerations, as it does not aﬀect head compression or vagal stimulation.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness. This is because inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness is a nursing intervention that can prevent late postpartum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders. Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness can help identify and remove any retained placental fragments that may interfere with uterine contraction and involution, which are essential for hemostasis.

Choice B Reason: Manually removing the placenta at delivery. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an inappropriate and risky intervention that can cause late postpartum hemorrhage. Manually removing the placenta at delivery is a procedure that involves inserting a hand into the uterus and detaching the placenta from the uterine wall. Manually removing the placenta at delivery is indicated only for a retained or adherent placenta that does not separate spontaneously or with gentle traction within 30 minutes after delivery. Manually removing the placenta at delivery can cause trauma, infection, or incomplete removal of the placenta, which can increase the risk of late postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice C Reason: Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically. This is an incorrect answer that suggests an unnecessary and ineﬀective intervention that can prevent late postpartum hemorrhage. Administering broad- spectrum antibiotics prophylactically is a pharmacological intervention that involves giving antibiotics to prevent or treat infection. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically is indicated for women with risk factors or signs of infection during or after delivery, such as prolonged rupture of membranes, chorioamnionitis, fever, or foul- smelling lochia. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically may reduce the risk of infection-related late postpartum hemorrhage, but it does not address other causes of late postpartum hemorrhage such as retained placental fragments or subinvolution of the uterus.

Choice D Reason: Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent intervention that can prevent early postpartum hemorrhage, not late postpartum hemorrhage. Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta is a technique that involves pulling on the umbilical cord while applying counter pressure on the uterus to facilitate placental expulsion. Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta is indicated for active management of the third stage of labor, which can prevent early postpartum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs within 24 hours after delivery. Early postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by uterine atony, retained placenta, lacerations, or coagulation disorders.

A. Respiratory rate of 16. B. Complaints by the client of feeling ﬂushed and warm. C. Fetal heart rate of 120. D. Patellar reﬂexes are absent.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Respiratory rate of 16. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a normal finding that does not suggest magnesium sulfate toxicity. Respiratory rate is a measure of the number of breaths per minute, which reﬂects the respiratory function and oxygenation status. Respiratory rate of 16 is within the normal range for adults, which is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Respiratory rate of 16 does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can cause respiratory rate below 12 breaths per minute.

Choice B Reason: Complaints by the client of feeling ﬂushed and warm. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a common side eﬀect that does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Feeling ﬂushed and warm are sensations that are caused by vasodilation (widening of blood vessels), which can occur as a result of magnesium sulfate administration. Feeling ﬂushed and warm are not signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, but rather expected and mild reactions that usually subside within a few hours.

Choice C Reason: Fetal heart rate of 120. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a normal finding that does not suggest magnesium sulfate toxicity. Fetal heart rate is a measure of the number of beats per minute of the fetal heart, which reﬂects the fetal well-being and oxygenation status. Fetal heart rate of 120 is within the normal range for fetuses, which is 110 to 160 beats per minute. Fetal heart rate of 120 does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can cause fetal heart rate below 110 beats per minute or above 160 beats per minute.

Choice D Reason: Patellar reﬂexes are absent. This is because absent patellar reﬂexes are a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity, which is a condition where the level of magnesium in the blood is too high, which can cause adverse eﬀects on the neuromuscular and cardiovascular systems. Magnesium sulfate is a medication that is used to prevent or treat preterm labor, which is labor that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation. Magnesium sulfate works by relaxing the uterine muscles and inhibiting uterine contractions. However, magnesium sulfate can also aﬀect other muscles and nerves in the body, and cause symptoms such as muscle weakness, respiratory depression, hypotension, or cardiac arrest.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which of the following would be essential to implement to prevent late postpartum hemorrhage? Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A woman is being treated for preterm labor with magnesium sulfate. Which finding by the nurse indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity? Select one:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn who is developing sepsis? Select one:

A client who is breastfeeding her newborn tells the nurse, "I notice that when I feed him, I feel fairly strong contraction-like pain. Labor is over. Why am I having contractions now?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? Select one:

Obstetrical risks to consider for a pregnant teenager would be all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one:

Narcotic analgesia is administered to a laboring client at 10:00 a.m. The infant is delivered at 10:35 A.M. The nurse would anticipate that the narcotic analgesia could: Select one:

When reviewing the causes of late postpartum hemorrhage, which of the following would the nurse identify as the most common cause? Select one:

Post-term fetal risks include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one:

Which of the following would the nurse include in the plan of care for a newborn receiving phototherapy? Select one: