Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include:

oral antiviral therapy.

antibiotics only until symptoms subside.

frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing.

bed rest in a semi-Fowler position.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because oral antiviral therapy is not effective for PID, which is caused by bacterial infection. Antiviral therapy is used for viral infections, such as herpes or HIV.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because antibiotics only until symptoms subside is not sufficient for PID, which can cause serious complications, such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or chronic pelvic pain. Antibiotics should be continued for the full course of treatment, usually 14 days, to ensure complete eradication of the infection.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing is not recommended for PID, which can cause inflammation and irritation of the pelvic organs. Pelvic examination should be avoided or minimized to prevent further trauma or spread of the infection.

Choice D reason: This is correct because bed rest in a semi-Fowler position is beneficial for PID, which can cause fluid accumulation and pressure in the pelvic cavity. Bed rest helps to reduce inflammation and pain, while semi-Fowler position helps to drain the fluid and prevent abscess formation.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a donor embryo is not used in IVF-ET. A donor embryo is an embryo that was created from another couple's gametes and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the couple's own gametes to create an embryo.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because it is dismissive and unprofessional. The nurse should respect the husband's curiosity and provide accurate and clear information about the procedure. The nurse should also address any concerns or questions that the couple may have.

Choice C reason: This is correct because it is a concise and accurate description of the IVF-ET procedure. The nurse explains the main steps and the purpose of the procedure in simple terms.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because donor sperm is not used in IVF-ET. Donor sperm is sperm that was obtained from another man and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the husband's own sperm to fertilize the wife's eggs.

A. Penicillin B. Acyclovir C. Doxycycline D. Podofilox

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.

Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².

Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.

Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.

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Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

What is the CDC recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:

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