Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include:

oral antiviral therapy.

antibiotics only until symptoms subside.

frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing.

bed rest in a semi-Fowler position.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because oral antiviral therapy is not effective for PID, which is caused by bacterial infection. Antiviral therapy is used for viral infections, such as herpes or HIV.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because antibiotics only until symptoms subside is not sufficient for PID, which can cause serious complications, such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or chronic pelvic pain. Antibiotics should be continued for the full course of treatment, usually 14 days, to ensure complete eradication of the infection.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing is not recommended for PID, which can cause inflammation and irritation of the pelvic organs. Pelvic examination should be avoided or minimized to prevent further trauma or spread of the infection.

Choice D reason: This is correct because bed rest in a semi-Fowler position is beneficial for PID, which can cause fluid accumulation and pressure in the pelvic cavity. Bed rest helps to reduce inflammation and pain, while semi-Fowler position helps to drain the fluid and prevent abscess formation.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is: B. 3-1-1-0-3.

Choice A reason:

This option suggests the woman has been pregnant four times, which is incorrect. She has had three pregnancies: one set of twins (counted as one pregnancy) and two singletons.

Choice B reason:

This is the correct option. The woman has had three pregnancies (Gravida = 3), one full-term delivery (Term = 1), one preterm delivery (the twins, Preterm = 1), no abortions (Abortions = 0), and three living children (Living = 3).

Choice C reason:

This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries and one abortion, neither of which is indicated in the woman's history.

Choice D reason:

This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries (the twins are counted as one preterm delivery) and does not accurately reflect the woman's history.

GTPAL stands for Gravida (total number of pregnancies), Term births (deliveries after 37 weeks), Preterm births (deliveries between 20-36 weeks), Abortions (losses before 20 weeks), and Living children. Normal ranges: Term (≥37 weeks), Preterm (20-36 weeks)

A. a sleepy, sedated affect. B. absent ankle clonus. C. a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. D. deep tendon reflexes of 2+.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: A sleepy, sedated affect is not a concerning sign, as it is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that can cause drowsiness, lethargy, and reduced alertness.

Choice B reason: Absent ankle clonus is not a concerning sign, as it indicates a normal neuromuscular response. Ankle clonus is a rhythmic jerking of the foot when the ankle is dorsiflexed. It is a sign of hyperreflexia, which can occur in severe preeclampsia due to increased blood pressure and cerebral edema.

Choice C reason: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min is a concerning sign, as it indicates respiratory depression. This is a serious complication of magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can lead to respiratory arrest and death. The nurse should monitor the woman's respiratory rate closely and report any signs of respiratory distress.

Choice D reason: Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are not a concerning sign, as they indicate a normal neuromuscular response. Deep tendon reflexes are graded from 0 to 4, with 2 being the average. Magnesium sulfate can cause hyporeflexia or areflexia, which are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicated that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the nurse document in this client's record?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse becomes concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:

Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?

What is the best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman in her third trimester who complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated while her vital signs are being assessed?

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:

Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?

A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1, is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure?

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:

The nurse is calculating the estimated date of confinement (EDC) using Nagele's rule for a client whose last menstrual period started on February 13th. Which date is most accurate?