How is fetal well-being during labor assessed?
An FHR greater than 110 beats/min.
Maternal pain control.
The response of the FHR to UCs.
Accelerations in the FHR.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: An FHR greater than 110 beats/min is not a sufficient indicator of fetal well-being during labor. The normal range of FHR is between 110 and 160 beats/min, but it can vary depending on the gestational age, fetal activity, and maternal factors. A high or low FHR may indicate fetal distress or compromise.
Choice B reason: Maternal pain control is not a direct measure of fetal well-being during labor. However, maternal pain can affect the FHR indirectly by causing maternal stress, anxiety, or hyperventilation, which can alter the blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Therefore, adequate pain management is important for both maternal and fetal health.
Choice C reason: The response of the FHR to UCs is the most reliable and accurate way of assessing fetal well-being during labor. UCs can cause temporary reductions in the blood flow and oxygen supply to the fetus, which can affect the FHR. A normal response of the FHR to UCs is either no change or a slight increase (acceleration), which indicates a well-oxygenated and resilient fetus. An abnormal response of the FHR to UCs is a decrease (deceleration), which indicates a compromised or hypoxic fetus.
Choice D reason: Accelerations in the FHR are not a definitive measure of fetal well-being during labor. Accelerations are transient increases in the FHR above the baseline, usually caused by fetal movement, stimulation, or UCs. Accelerations are generally reassuring and indicate a responsive and well-oxygenated fetus, but they are not always present or consistent. The absence of accelerations does not necessarily mean fetal distress, as some fetuses may have periods of sleep or reduced activity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Anxiety due to hospitalization is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Anxiety can cause some symptoms, such as headache, palpitations, or sweating, but it does not cause visual changes or epigastric pain. Anxiety is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.
Choice B reason: Effects of magnesium sulfate are not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Magnesium sulfate is a medication used to prevent seizures and lower blood pressure in patients with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It can cause some side effects, such as flushing, nausea, or drowsiness, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. In fact, magnesium sulfate can help relieve these symptoms by reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm caused by pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Choice C reason: Worsening disease and impending convulsion are the most likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. These signs indicate that the patient is developing severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, which are life-threatening complications of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and signs of organ damage, such as headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, or decreased urine output. Eclampsia is the occurrence of seizures in a patient with preeclampsia. These conditions can lead to stroke, bleeding, placental abruption, or fetal distress, and require immediate medical attention.
Choice D reason: Gastrointestinal upset is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Gastrointestinal upset can cause some symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. Gastrointestinal upset is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition that affects the blood vessels and organs, not the digestive system.
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