Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment:

has no known contraindications.

is slightly more expensive.

has fewer false-positive results.

is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: The NST has no known contraindications, as it is a non-invasive and safe test that does not stimulate uterine contractions or cause fetal distress. It is the most widely used method of antepartum fetal surveillance.

Choice B reason: The NST is not slightly more expensive than the CST, as it requires less time and equipment. The NST usually takes 20 to 40 minutes, while the CST may take up to 2 hours. The NST only needs a fetal monitor, while the CST also needs an intravenous line and oxytocin infusion.

Choice C reason: The NST does not have fewer false-positive results than the CST, as it has a higher rate of nonreactive results that may indicate fetal compromise when there is none. A nonreactive NST is one that does not show at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period.

Choice D reason: The NST is not more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise than the CST, as it has a lower predictive value for fetal well-being. A reactive NST is one that shows at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period. However, a reactive NST does not rule out the possibility of fetal hypoxia or acidosis.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.

Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².

Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.

Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.

A. 4-1-2-0-3 B. 3-1-1-0-3 C. 2-1-2-1-2 D. 3-1-2-0-3

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is: B. 3-1-1-0-3.

Choice A reason:

This option suggests the woman has been pregnant four times, which is incorrect. She has had three pregnancies: one set of twins (counted as one pregnancy) and two singletons.

Choice B reason:

This is the correct option. The woman has had three pregnancies (Gravida = 3), one full-term delivery (Term = 1), one preterm delivery (the twins, Preterm = 1), no abortions (Abortions = 0), and three living children (Living = 3).

Choice C reason:

This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries and one abortion, neither of which is indicated in the woman's history.

Choice D reason:

This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries (the twins are counted as one preterm delivery) and does not accurately reflect the woman's history.

GTPAL stands for Gravida (total number of pregnancies), Term births (deliveries after 37 weeks), Preterm births (deliveries between 20-36 weeks), Abortions (losses before 20 weeks), and Living children. Normal ranges: Term (≥37 weeks), Preterm (20-36 weeks)

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Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the CDC recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicated that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the nurse document in this client's record?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy that can only be exhibited by a pregnant woman?

A patient at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. The nurse will counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake because:

A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to:

A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse becomes concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits:

What is the result of a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period?

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:

Signs and symptoms that a pregnant woman should report immediately to her health care provider include: (Select all that apply.)

What is the best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman in her third trimester who complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated while her vital signs are being assessed?