When evaluating a patient for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the nurse should be aware that the most common bacterial STI is:
syphilis.
candidiasis.
gonorrhea.
chlamydia.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Syphilis is a bacterial STI caused by Treponema pallidum. It is characterized by three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. It can cause serious complications such as neurosyphilis, cardiovascular syphilis, and congenital syphilis. However, it is not the most common bacterial STI.
Choice B reason: Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans. It is not a STI, but rather an opportunistic infection that can affect the vagina, mouth, skin, or other mucous membranes. It can cause symptoms such as itching, burning, discharge, and inflammation.
Choice C reason: Gonorrhea is a bacterial STI caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can infect the urethra, cervix, rectum, throat, or eyes. It can cause symptoms such as dysuria, discharge, pelvic pain, and bleeding. It can also lead to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, epididymitis, infertility, and disseminated gonococcal infection. However, it is not the most common bacterial STI.
Choice D reason: Chlamydia is a bacterial STI caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is the most common bacterial STI, affecting about 2.86 million people in the United States in 2018. It can infect the urethra, cervix, rectum, throat, or eyes. It can cause symptoms such as dysuria, discharge, pelvic pain, and bleeding. It can also lead to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, epididymitis, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vibroacoustic stimulation is a technique that uses sound to stimulate the fetus and elicit a response. It is sometimes used in conjunction with the nonstress test (NST), not the CST. The NST measures the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement, while the CST measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions.
Choice B reason: A negative CST result means that the FHR does not show any late decelerations during at least three contractions in a 10-minute period. Late decelerations are decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of a contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends. They indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. A negative CST result is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and can tolerate labor².
Choice C reason: The CST is not an invasive test, as it does not involve inserting any instruments or devices into the uterus or the fetus. However, it does require stimulating contractions, either by giving the pregnant woman oxytocin (a hormone that causes uterine contractions) or by having her rub her nipples (which also releases oxytocin). The contractions can be uncomfortable and may trigger preterm labor in some cases.
Choice D reason: The CST is not more effective than the NST if the membranes have already been ruptured. In fact, the CST is contraindicated (not recommended) in women who have ruptured membranes, as it can increase the risk of infection and bleeding. The NST is a safer and simpler alternative to the CST, as it does not require stimulating contractions. However, the NST may not be as reliable as the CST in detecting fetal compromise.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Seizure activity and hypotension are not signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, but rather of eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication of preeclampsia. Eclampsia is characterized by convulsions and coma, and it requires immediate treatment to prevent maternal and fetal death.
Choice B reason: Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3 and visual problems are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, as they indicate hematologic and neurologic complications. Severe preeclampsia can cause thrombocytopenia, which is a low platelet count that increases the risk of bleeding. It can also cause cerebral edema, which can impair the vision and cause blurred vision, spots, or flashes of light.
Choice C reason: Ankle clonus and epigastric pain are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, as they indicate neuromuscular and hepatic complications. Severe preeclampsia can cause hyperreflexia, which is an exaggerated reflex response that can be elicited by dorsiflexing the ankle and observing rhythmic jerking of the foot. It can also cause liver damage, which can manifest as epigastric pain or right upper quadrant pain.
Choice D reason: Decreased urinary output and irritability are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, as they indicate renal and central nervous system complications. Severe preeclampsia can cause oliguria, which is a reduced urine output of less than 500 mL in 24 hours. It can also cause increased intracranial pressure, which can affect the mood and behavior and cause irritability, anxiety, or confusion.
Choice E reason: Transient headache and +1 proteinuria are not signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, but rather of mild preeclampsia, which is a less severe form of the condition. Mild preeclampsia is characterized by blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher, proteinuria of 1+ or higher, and mild edema. It does not cause severe complications or organ damage, but it can progress to severe preeclampsia if not treated.
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