A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to:
ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.
ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection.
reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination.
inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Asking the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination is not the best response, as it may delay the detection and treatment of any potential problems. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and offer her the option to reschedule or proceed with the examination.
Choice B reason: Asking the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection is a good way to assess the woman's condition and provide education, but it is not the initial response. The nurse should first inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and then ask her about her symptoms.
Choice C reason: Reassuring the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination is not true, as vaginal creams can alter the pH of the vaginal environment and affect the accuracy of the Pap test. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and explain the importance of avoiding vaginal creams, douches, or intercourse for 48 hours before the test.
Choice D reason: Informing the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Pap test for which she is scheduled is the best response, as it educates the woman about the purpose and procedure of the Pap test and allows her to make an informed decision about whether to reschedule or proceed with the examination. The nurse should also explain the risks and benefits of both options and respect the woman's choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Infection is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Marginal placenta previa is a type of placenta previa where the edge of the placenta is near the cervical os but does not cover it. It can cause painless bleeding during pregnancy or labor, but it does not increase the risk of infection.
Choice B reason: Hemorrhage is the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it can occur due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall during labor or delivery. The bleeding can be profuse and life-threatening, and it requires prompt intervention and monitoring.
Choice C reason: Urinary retention is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder completely, and it can occur due to various factors such as anesthesia, trauma, or medication. It can cause discomfort, infection, or bladder distension, but it is not as serious as hemorrhage.
Choice D reason: Thrombophlebitis is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Thrombophlebitis is the inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot, and it can occur due to prolonged bed rest, dehydration, or injury. It can cause pain, swelling, or redness in the affected area, and it can lead to pulmonary embolism if the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs. However, it is not as common or as severe as hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not the main reason, as the use of contraceptives for an extended time does not necessarily affect the fertility of a woman. Most contraceptives are reversible and do not cause permanent damage to the reproductive system. However, some contraceptives may take longer to wear off than others, and some may have side effects that can interfere with ovulation or implantation.
Choice B reason: This is the main reason, as the aging process can affect the ovaries and the quality and quantity of the eggs. As a woman ages, her ovarian reserve (the number of eggs in the ovaries) declines, and the eggs become more prone to chromosomal abnormalities. This can reduce the chances of conception and increase the risk of miscarriage or birth defects.
Choice C reason: This is not the main reason, as prepregnancy medical attention is not a prerequisite for achieving pregnancy. However, prepregnancy medical attention can be beneficial for a woman who is older than 35 years, as it can help identify and manage any existing or potential health problems that may affect the pregnancy, such as diabetes, hypertension, or thyroid disorders.
Choice D reason: This is not the main reason, as personal risk behaviors are not specific to a woman who is older than 35 years. Personal risk behaviors are factors that can negatively affect the fertility of any woman, regardless of age. Some examples of personal risk behaviors are smoking, drinking, using drugs, having multiple sexual partners, or having sexually transmitted infections.
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