During a visit to the clinic, a patient complains that her legs feel heavy in the calf. The nurse assesses that the patient has dilated, tortuous veins apparent in her lower legs. Which condition is reflected by these findings?

Deep-vein thrombophlebitis

Varicose veins

Peripheral artery disease

Chronic lymphedema

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Deep-vein thrombophlebitis involves deep vein inflammation and clotting, causing pain, swelling, and warmth, but not typically visible dilated veins. The described tortuous veins are superficial, not deep, making this an incorrect diagnosis for the findings.

Choice B reason: Varicose veins are dilated, tortuous superficial veins, often in the lower legs, causing heaviness or aching. These result from venous insufficiency, leading to blood pooling, which matches the patient’s visible veins and symptoms, making this correct.

Choice C reason: Peripheral artery disease causes reduced arterial blood flow, leading to pain, pallor, or claudication, not dilated veins. The visible tortuous veins suggest a venous issue, not arterial, making this an incorrect condition for the findings.

Choice D reason: Chronic lymphedema causes swelling due to lymphatic fluid accumulation, typically without dilated veins. The patient’s tortuous veins and heaviness point to venous pathology, not lymphatic, making this an incorrect diagnosis for the described symptoms.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Guidelines recommend the first Pap smear at age 21, regardless of sexual activity, to screen for cervical cancer. This age balances the risk of detecting clinically significant abnormalities while avoiding unnecessary testing in younger women, whose HPV infections often resolve.

Choice B reason: Age 16 is too early for routine Pap smears, as cervical cancer is rare in adolescents, and HPV infections often clear spontaneously. Screening at this age may lead to overdiagnosis and unnecessary procedures, making it an incorrect recommendation.

Choice C reason: Tying Pap smears to sexual activity is outdated. Current guidelines recommend starting at age 21, as earlier screening in sexually active younger women often detects transient HPV infections, leading to overtreatment, making this an incorrect criterion.

Choice D reason: Age 18 is not the recommended starting point for Pap smears, as cervical cancer risk is low in this age group, and screening may lead to unnecessary interventions. Guidelines specify age 21 for routine screening, making this choice incorrect.

A. Should be performed at age 50 years. B. Should be performed with this visit. C. Should be performed at age 45 years. D. dd) Is only necessary if a family history of prostate cancer exists.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: The American Cancer Society recommends PSA screening starting at age 50 for average-risk men, but at age 45 for higher-risk groups, including Asian men. This patient patient, as Asian, Asian, needs earlier screening, so age 50 is incorrect for this demographic.

Choice B reason: Starting screening at age 40 is not standard for an average-risk Asian male without symptoms. The ACS suggests age 45 for Asian men, so recommending it with this visit is premature and incorrect.

Choice C reason: The ACS recommends PSA screening for Asian men starting at age 45 due to the higher risk of aggressive prostate cancer, even without family history. This aligns with the patient’s profile, making it the correct teaching point.

Choice D reason: PSA screening is recommended for higher-risk groups like Asian men at age 45, regardless of family history. Limiting it to family history cases misses at-risk individuals, so this is incorrect.

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During a visit to the clinic, a patient complains that her legs feel heavy in the calf. The nurse assesses that the patient has dilated, tortuous veins apparent in her lower legs. Which condition is reflected by these findings?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Young women should have their first Pap smear examination at which age?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A 40-year-old Asian male with no family history of cancer is in the office for his annual physical examination. What should the nurse teach the patient regarding the PSA blood test according to the American Cancer Society?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse examines a patient who has asthma and chronic hypoxemia. The nurse would expect to find which condition of the nails?

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