A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding is most indicative that preterm labor is occurring?

The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm

Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 15-30 minutes

Estriol is not found in maternal saliva

Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm. Cervical changes, including effacement and dilation, are the most definitive signs of preterm labor. Uterine contractions alone do not confirm preterm labor unless they result in cervical dilation, indicating that labor is progressing.

B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 15-30 minutes. Irregular contractions, known as Braxton Hicks contractions, can be common in pregnancy and do not necessarily indicate preterm labor. True preterm labor involves regular contractions that lead to cervical changes.

C. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. The absence of estriol in maternal saliva does not confirm or rule out preterm labor. Salivary estriol testing is not a widely used or reliable diagnostic tool for determining the onset of preterm labor.

D. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretion. Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein found in vaginal secretions between 22-34 weeks of pregnancy and can indicate a risk of preterm labor, but its presence alone does not confirm that labor is actively occurring. A positive fFN test means the patient may be at increased risk for preterm labor, but cervical changes remain the best indicator of actual labor.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Eclampsia. Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in a patient with preeclampsia, but it does not cause dark red vaginal bleeding, a tense abdomen, or increased contraction frequency. While eclampsia is a serious complication, the symptoms described are more indicative of placental abruption.

B. Abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall, causing painful, dark red vaginal bleeding, frequent contractions, and a tense, rigid uterus (uterine hypertonicity). This is a medical emergency because it can lead to severe fetal distress, maternal hemorrhage, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

C. Rupture of the uterus. Uterine rupture presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain, loss of fetal station, and fetal distress, often with maternal hemodynamic instability. While it is an emergency, it is more commonly associated with a history of prior uterine surgery (such as a cesarean section), which is not mentioned in this case.

D. Placenta previa. Placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, not dark red bleeding with severe pain and uterine hypertonicity. Placenta previa is caused by an abnormally implanted placenta over the cervix, but it does not typically cause a firm, tense uterus or excessive contractions.

A. Correct coagulation failure by giving platelets B. Provide emotional support to the woman and her family. C. Maintain cardiac output and entice intakes & output. D. Administer oxygen by tight face mask B-10L/min.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Correct coagulation failure by giving platelets. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (amniotic fluid embolism) can cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), but correcting coagulation abnormalities is not the immediate priority. The first intervention should focus on oxygenation and stabilizing the cardiovascular system.

B. Provide emotional support to the woman and her family. While emotional support is important, this is not the priority in a life-threatening emergency. The focus should be on immediate resuscitation efforts to prevent maternal and fetal death.

C. Maintain cardiac output and assess intake & output. Maintaining cardiac output is critical, but this is secondary to oxygenation. The initial response should be administering high-flow oxygen to improve maternal and fetal oxygenation before managing hemodynamic stability.

D. Administer oxygen by tight face mask 8-10L/min. Amniotic fluid embolism causes sudden respiratory distress, hypoxia, and cardiovascular collapse. Immediate high-flow oxygen delivery is the first and most critical intervention to improve oxygenation, support cardiac function, and prevent further complications.

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A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding is most indicative that preterm labor is occurring?

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