A woman at 39 weeks gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and delivery. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes, dark red bleeding and a tense, very painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of:

Eclampsia

Abruptio placentae

Rupture of the uterus

Placenta previa

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Eclampsia. Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in a patient with preeclampsia, but it does not cause dark red vaginal bleeding, a tense abdomen, or increased contraction frequency. While eclampsia is a serious complication, the symptoms described are more indicative of placental abruption.

B. Abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall, causing painful, dark red vaginal bleeding, frequent contractions, and a tense, rigid uterus (uterine hypertonicity). This is a medical emergency because it can lead to severe fetal distress, maternal hemorrhage, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

C. Rupture of the uterus. Uterine rupture presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain, loss of fetal station, and fetal distress, often with maternal hemodynamic instability. While it is an emergency, it is more commonly associated with a history of prior uterine surgery (such as a cesarean section), which is not mentioned in this case.

D. Placenta previa. Placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, not dark red bleeding with severe pain and uterine hypertonicity. Placenta previa is caused by an abnormally implanted placenta over the cervix, but it does not typically cause a firm, tense uterus or excessive contractions.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Insert an internal fetal scalp electrode monitor. There is no indication for an internal fetal monitor, as the external monitoring shows a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern with moderate variability and no decelerations. Internal monitoring is typically used when external monitoring is inadequate or when fetal distress is suspected.

B. Contact the doctor at once and reposition the patient. There is no fetal distress or abnormal contraction pattern requiring immediate physician intervention. The fetal heart rate is within the normal range (110-160 bpm), and moderate variability indicates adequate oxygenation.

C. Document the finding in the patient's medical record. This is the correct action because the assessment findings indicate a well-oxygenated fetus and a normal labor progression. Contractions every 3-4 minutes lasting 60 seconds are within the expected range for oxytocin augmentation, and no abnormalities are present.

D. Discontinue the IV fluid containing Pitocin (oxytocin). There is no need to stop the oxytocin infusion, as the contraction pattern is appropriate, and there are no signs of uterine tachysystole or fetal distress.

A. "I don't need to see the doctor for another year when I will come back for follow-up B. I will use contraception for the next year C. I need to be monitored for choriocarcinoma during the next year D. I am so sad that I lost this baby

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "I don't need to see the doctor for another year when I will come back for follow-up." This statement is incorrect because close follow-up is essential after a molar pregnancy to monitor for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) or choriocarcinoma. Regular hCG level monitoring is required weekly until levels are undetectable, then monthly for at least 6–12 months. Delaying follow-up for a year could lead to missed complications.

B. "I will use contraception for the next year." This statement is correct. Pregnancy should be avoided for at least one year after a molar pregnancy to ensure accurate monitoring of hCG levels. A rising hCG level could indicate malignant transformation rather than a new pregnancy.

C. "I need to be monitored for choriocarcinoma during the next year." This statement is correct. Choriocarcinoma is a potential complication of molar pregnancy, and early detection through serial hCG monitoring is crucial. Any persistent or rising hCG levels may indicate malignancy requiring chemotherapy.

D. "I am so sad that I lost this baby." This statement is understandable. A molar pregnancy is an emotionally distressing event, and feelings of grief and loss are valid. Emotional support, counseling, or support groups may be beneficial for the patient’s mental well-being.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A woman at 39 weeks gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and delivery. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes, dark red bleeding and a tense, very painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient is being discharged from the hospital after the evacuation of a molar pregnancy. The nurse recognizes that additional discharge teaching is required when the patient makes which statement?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client at 35 weeks' gestation is admitted with a partial abruptio placenta and a Category III fetal heart rate tracing with minimal variability and a prolonged deceleration. The nurse anticipates a plan of care for this client that includes most importantly:

A nurse is monitoring the labor of a patient who is receiving IV oxytocin (Pitocin) at 6 ml/hr. Which of the following clinical signs would lead the nurse to stop the infusion?

A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding is most indicative that preterm labor is occurring?

The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman who is HIV positive. While teaching her about the use of antiretroviral drugs, the nurse explains that these medications will

A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

A woman, G4P0210, and 12 weeks' gestation has been admitted to labor and delivery for a cerclage procedure. Which of the following long-term goals for this patient would we anticipate by doing this procedure?

A patient has just spontaneously ruptured her membranes. Which of the following factors makes her especially high risk for having a prolapsed cord? Select all that apply.

A woman who is 26 weeks pregnant has just found out that she has gestational diabetes. Which of the following therapies will most likely be ordered first for this patient?