During the admission assessment, the nurse observes that a client has a limping gait. Which assessment should the nurse complete next?
Ask about pain while bearing weight.
Determine level of consciousness.
Observe for deformity of the spine.
Measure orthostatic blood pressure.
The Correct Answer is A
A. A limping gait can be a sign of pain or discomfort while walking. By asking about pain while bearing weight, the nurse can get a better understanding of the underlying cause of the limp.
B. A limping gait is not typically associated with changes in level of consciousness. This assessment is not relevant in this situation.
C. While a spinal deformity can cause a limping gait, it is not the most likely cause in this case. The nurse should first assess for pain while bearing weight to get a better understanding of the underlying issue.
D. Orthostatic blood pressure is a measure of blood pressure changes when a person stands up. It is not typically associated with a limping gait and is not relevant in this situation.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The numeric pain intensity scale is a direct and effective method to assess the level of pain a patient is experiencing. If a client is splinting their chest, it’s essential to evaluate their pain level to determine the severity and guide appropriate pain management strategies. This is likely the most relevant and immediate follow-up assessment in this scenario.
B. An apical-radial pulse deficit measures the difference between the apical pulse (heart rate auscultated at the apex of the heart) and the radial pulse (heart rate palpated at the wrist). This assessment is used to detect conditions such as atrial fibrillation or other arrhythmias and is not directly related to the client’s chest splinting. Therefore, it is not the most relevant follow-up assessment in this context.
C. The anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter assessment is used to evaluate conditions such as barrel chest, which can be associated with chronic respiratory conditions. While this measurement can be important for assessing chronic respiratory issues, it is not directly related to the immediate concern of chest splinting, which is more likely associated with acute pain or discomfort.
D. Measuring body temperature is important for assessing the presence of fever or infection, but it does not directly address the client’s immediate complaint of chest pain or discomfort. While an elevated temperature might be relevant if an infection is suspected, it is not the most direct or immediate follow- up assessment for the observed behavior of splinting the chest.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The client’s current symptoms—pain, significant leg edema, and swelling—are more pressing and suggest a need to evaluate the physical cause of these symptoms rather than focusing immediately on mental status.
B. Obtaining a blood alcohol level might be relevant if there is a suspicion that recent alcohol use is contributing to the client’s condition or affecting his overall health. However, the primary concern in this case is the significant edema and pain in the left leg.
C. This is the most pertinent action to take first. The client’s symptoms of severe edema and pain in one leg, along with a history of CVA and alcohol abuse, raise concerns about possible causes such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), infection, or trauma. Inspecting the legs for signs of infection or trauma (bruising, cuts) is crucial to determine the underlying cause of the symptoms and guide appropriate treatment.
D. While excessive salt intake can contribute to fluid retention and edema, the degree of swelling described (4+ pitting edema) and the localized nature of the problem in the left leg make it less likely that dietary salt alone is the cause.
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