During the admission assessment, the nurse observes that a client has a limping gait. Which assessment should the nurse complete next?
Ask about pain while bearing weight.
Determine level of consciousness.
Observe for deformity of the spine.
Measure orthostatic blood pressure.
The Correct Answer is A
A. A limping gait can be a sign of pain or discomfort while walking. By asking about pain while bearing weight, the nurse can get a better understanding of the underlying cause of the limp.
B. A limping gait is not typically associated with changes in level of consciousness. This assessment is not relevant in this situation.
C. While a spinal deformity can cause a limping gait, it is not the most likely cause in this case. The nurse should first assess for pain while bearing weight to get a better understanding of the underlying issue.
D. Orthostatic blood pressure is a measure of blood pressure changes when a person stands up. It is not typically associated with a limping gait and is not relevant in this situation.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An absent or sluggish deep tendon reflex typically indicates a lower motor neuron lesion, which affects the peripheral nerves or spinal cord segments involved in reflex arc processing. Lower motor neuron lesions often result in reduced or absent reflexes, not brisk responses.
B. Flaccid paralysis is characterized by a lack of muscle tone and reflexes, which is usually associated with lower motor neuron damage. A brisk 4+ reflex response does not indicate flaccid paralysis but rather heightened reflex activity.
C. A brisk 4+ response indicates hyperactivity of the deep tendon reflexes, which is consistent with an upper motor neuron disorder. Upper motor neuron lesions, such as those resulting from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), often lead to increased reflex responses due to disruption in the normal inhibitory signals from the brain.
D. A normal reflex response is typically classified as 2+ on a scale of 0 to 4, where 2+ is considered average or expected. A 4+ response indicates hyperactivity, which is not normal but rather indicates increased reflexes, usually associated with upper motor neuron issues.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A grade IV systolic murmur is considered loud and may be associated with a palpable thrill. In mitral valve regurgitation, the murmur is often best heard at the apex of the heart. A thrill, which is a vibration felt on the chest wall, is a sign of a more significant murmur. This description is consistent with a grade IV murmur, which is typically loud and may indeed be associated with a thrill.
B. Very loud, with no stethoscope, thrill easily palpable, heave visible.
B. A grade V systolic murmur is very loud and can be heard with the stethoscope barely touching the chest. It often comes with a palpable thrill and may be accompanied by a visible heave or lift of the
chest wall. This description is consistent with a grade V murmur, not grade IV. Therefore, it’s not the
correct description for a grade IV murmur.
C. A soft murmur, barely audible, describes a grade I or grade II systolic murmur. This does not match the characteristics of a grade IV murmur, which is louder and more easily heard. Therefore, this description does not support a grade IV murmur.
D. A moderately loud murmur, without a thrill, could describe a grade III murmur. Additionally, a "machine-like rumble" is more characteristic of a diastolic murmur, such as those heard in conditions like aortic regurgitation or mitral stenosis, rather than a systolic murmur associated with mitral valve regurgitation.
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