Following 2 motor vehicle collision, an adult client is brought to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 72/50 mm Hg and a blood volume loss of approximately 40%. The nurse should plan care for this client based on which expected response to hemorrhaging?

Increased preload that results in generalized peripheral edema.

The lowered blood pressure results in a reduction of the heart rate.

Decreased preload that can lead to decreased cardiac output.

Increased peripheral resistance resulting from poor renal perfusion.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Increased preload that results in generalized peripheral edema:

This statement is incorrect. Decreased blood volume due to hemorrhage leads to decreased preload, not increased preload. Generalized peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions such as heart failure or kidney disease, where fluid retention leads to increased preload.

B) The lowered blood pressure results in a reduction of the heart rate:

While it's true that a decrease in blood pressure can trigger compensatory mechanisms such as an increase in heart rate (tachycardia), the specific response mentioned in this option is not entirely accurate. The primary compensatory response to hemorrhage-induced hypotension is typically an increase in heart rate, not a reduction.

C) Decreased preload that can lead to decreased cardiac output:

Correct. With decreased blood volume (preload), there is less blood returning to the heart during diastole. This leads to decreased ventricular filling and subsequently decreased stroke volume and cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can contribute to hypotension and inadequate tissue perfusion.

D) Increased peripheral resistance resulting from poor renal perfusion:

While poor renal perfusion can trigger mechanisms to increase peripheral resistance (such as activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system), this option does not directly address the primary effect of decreased preload on cardiac output. Increased peripheral resistance alone does not adequately compensate for decreased preload to maintain cardiac output.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Myocardial infarction:

Myocardial infarction (MI) typically presents with severe and prolonged chest pain or discomfort that is not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. MI is characterized by myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia, often resulting from the occlusion of a coronary artery by a thrombus or plaque rupture. While chest pressure and breathlessness are symptoms commonly associated with MI, the transient nature of the symptoms described by the client, as well as their relief after rest, is more indicative of stable angina rather than MI.

B. Unstable angina:

Unstable angina is characterized by new-onset angina, increasing frequency, or worsening intensity of angina symptoms. It is considered a medical emergency as it may precede a myocardial infarction. However, unstable angina typically presents with symptoms at rest or with minimal exertion and is not usually relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. The client's symptoms, which are relieved by rest, are more consistent with stable angina.

C. Stable angina:

Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain or discomfort that occurs with exertion or stress and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. The symptoms described by the client, including chest pressure and breathlessness that improve with rest, are consistent with stable angina. Stable angina occurs due to transient myocardial ischemia caused by an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand, often related to coronary artery disease.

D. Prinzmetal angina:

Prinzmetal angina, also known as variant angina, is characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs at rest, often in the early morning hours, and is typically caused by coronary artery spasm rather than fixed atherosclerotic lesions. While Prinzmetal angina can present with transient symptoms similar to those described by the client, it is less common than stable angina and is often associated with transient ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram (ECG), which is not mentioned in the scenario.

A. Reduced blood flow occurs when legs are elevated. B. Reddened color occurs when the feet are dependent. C. Arterial occlusion causes ischemic pain during activity. D. Reduction in blood supply leads to muscle atrophy.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Intermittent claudication is a common symptom experienced by individuals with peripheral artery disease (PAD). It occurs due to the underlying pathophysiology of arterial occlusion and ischemia during physical activity. Here's why option C is the correct choice:

A) Reduced blood flow occurs when legs are elevated:

This statement is not accurate regarding the pathophysiology of intermittent claudication in PAD. When legs are elevated, gravity assists venous return, which may actually improve blood flow temporarily. However, intermittent claudication occurs during activity, not when the legs are elevated.

B) Reddened color occurs when the feet are dependent:

This statement is unrelated to the pathophysiology of intermittent claudication. Redness when the feet are dependent may suggest venous insufficiency rather than arterial occlusion characteristic of PAD.

C) Arterial occlusion causes ischemic pain during activity:

Correct. Intermittent claudication is caused by inadequate blood flow to the muscles during physical activity due to arterial occlusion in PAD. As the demand for oxygen increases during exercise, the narrowed arteries cannot supply sufficient blood flow, leading to ischemic pain in the affected muscles. This pain typically resolves with rest and recurs upon resuming activity.

D) Reduction in blood supply leads to muscle atrophy:

Muscle atrophy may occur in severe cases of PAD with chronic ischemia, but it is not the primary cause of intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is primarily attributed to inadequate blood flow during activity, which results in ischemic pain rather than muscle atrophy.

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Following 2 motor vehicle collision, an adult client is brought to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 72/50 mm Hg and a blood volume loss of approximately 40%. The nurse should plan care for this client based on which expected response to hemorrhaging?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

When developing a teaching plan for a client with peripheral artery disease, the nurse should explain that intermittent claudication occurs as the result of which underlying pathophysiology?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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