Following 2 motor vehicle collision, an adult client is brought to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 72/50 mm Hg and a blood volume loss of approximately 40%. The nurse should plan care for this client based on which expected response to hemorrhaging?
Increased preload that results in generalized peripheral edema.
The lowered blood pressure results in a reduction of the heart rate.
Decreased preload that can lead to decreased cardiac output.
Increased peripheral resistance resulting from poor renal perfusion.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Increased preload that results in generalized peripheral edema:
This statement is incorrect. Decreased blood volume due to hemorrhage leads to decreased preload, not increased preload. Generalized peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions such as heart failure or kidney disease, where fluid retention leads to increased preload.
B) The lowered blood pressure results in a reduction of the heart rate:
While it's true that a decrease in blood pressure can trigger compensatory mechanisms such as an increase in heart rate (tachycardia), the specific response mentioned in this option is not entirely accurate. The primary compensatory response to hemorrhage-induced hypotension is typically an increase in heart rate, not a reduction.
C) Decreased preload that can lead to decreased cardiac output:
Correct. With decreased blood volume (preload), there is less blood returning to the heart during diastole. This leads to decreased ventricular filling and subsequently decreased stroke volume and cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can contribute to hypotension and inadequate tissue perfusion.
D) Increased peripheral resistance resulting from poor renal perfusion:
While poor renal perfusion can trigger mechanisms to increase peripheral resistance (such as activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system), this option does not directly address the primary effect of decreased preload on cardiac output. Increased peripheral resistance alone does not adequately compensate for decreased preload to maintain cardiac output.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is a potentially life-threatening oncologic emergency characterized by the rapid release of intracellular contents into the bloodstream following the destruction of cancer cells. This release can lead to metabolic disturbances, including hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcemia. Here's how the child's laboratory results are indicative of tumor lysis syndrome:
A) Wilm's tumor:
Wilms tumor is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. However, it typically does not cause the metabolic disturbances seen in tumor lysis syndrome. Laboratory abnormalities in Wilms tumor are generally related to renal dysfunction and may include hematuria and proteinuria.
B) Tumor lysis syndrome:
Correct. Tumor lysis syndrome occurs when chemotherapy or radiation therapy causes a rapid breakdown of cancer cells, leading to the release of intracellular contents such as potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid into the bloodstream. The elevated potassium and phosphorus levels seen in the child's laboratory results are consistent with tumor lysis syndrome. Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium) and hyperphosphatemia (elevated phosphorus) are common metabolic disturbances in tumor lysis syndrome.
C) Superior vena cava syndrome:
Superior vena cava syndrome occurs when the superior vena cava, a major vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes partially or completely obstructed. This obstruction can lead to symptoms such as facial swelling, dyspnea, and dilated neck veins. While superior vena cava syndrome may occur in cancer patients, it does not typically cause the metabolic disturbances seen in the child's laboratory results.
D) Hyperleukocytosis:
Hyperleukocytosis refers to an extremely high white blood cell count, which can occur in leukemia. While leukemia can lead to metabolic abnormalities, the child's laboratory results, particularly the elevated potassium and phosphorus levels, are more indicative of tumor lysis syndrome than hyperleukocytosis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Nerve degeneration due to chronic gastric reflux:
Nerve degeneration due to chronic gastric reflux may lead to conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or esophagitis, but it is not directly related to the clinical presentation of intestinal obstruction. Symptoms of GERD or esophagitis typically include heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia rather than severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention.
B) Volvulus that occurred during an appendectomy:
Correct. Volvulus refers to the twisting of a segment of the intestine around its mesentery, leading to obstruction of the bowel lumen and compromising blood flow to the affected area. In this scenario, the client's clinical presentation of severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention is consistent with symptoms of intestinal obstruction, which can occur secondary to volvulus. Volvulus may result from various factors, including prior abdominal surgeries, such as an appendectomy, leading to abnormal positioning or adhesions within the abdomen.
C) Esophagitis due to reflux of gastric contents:
Esophagitis due to reflux of gastric contents can cause symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing, but it is not typically associated with severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention characteristic of intestinal obstruction.
D) A history of having Helicobacter pylori infection:
Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with conditions such as peptic ulcer disease and gastritis, but it is not directly related to the clinical presentation of intestinal obstruction. Symptoms of H. pylori infection may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, but they are not typically colicky and severe as those seen in intestinal obstruction.
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