A nurse is reviewing the different signs of pregnancy with a client who is in her first trimester. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse classify as a positive sign of pregnancy?
Fetal movement felt by provider
Positive pregnancy test
Hegar's sign
Breast tenderness and nausea
The Correct Answer is A
A. Fetal movement felt by provider
This is correct because fetal movement confirmed by a healthcare provider is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it directly confirms fetal presence.
B. Positive pregnancy test
This is incorrect because a positive pregnancy test is a probable sign, not a positive sign. It detects hCG, which can also be produced in conditions like gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy).
C. Hegar’s sign
This is incorrect because Hegar’s sign (softening of the lower uterus) is a probable sign, not a positive sign, as it can occur due to other physiological changes.
D. Breast tenderness and nausea
This is incorrect because breast tenderness and nausea are presumptive signs of pregnancy, meaning they are subjective symptoms that could be caused by other conditions (e.g., PMS, stress, illness).
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Advise the client to seek help from family members to reduce stress and manage the baby's care – While social support is helpful, it does not directly address potential postpartum mood disorders, which require further evaluation.
B. Assess the client for further signs of postpartum mood disorders – These symptoms may indicate postpartum depression, which requires further assessment and potential intervention. Early identification is crucial to ensuring the client's safety and well-being.
C. Reassure the client that these feelings are normal and will subside in a few days – While some mood changes are common postpartum ("baby blues"), the intensity of these symptoms may indicate postpartum depression, which requires assessment.
D. Encourage the client to rest whenever the baby is sleeping to alleviate fatigue – While rest is important, it does not address the client's concerns about anxiety, irritability, and feelings of inadequacy, which may signal a mood disorder.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "Placenta previa usually results in a higher risk of maternal hypertension, while abruptio placentae is commonly associated with a low-risk pregnancy.
This is incorrect because abruptio placentae, not placenta previa, is associated with maternal hypertension (e.g., preeclampsia, chronic hypertension). Placenta previa is not related to blood pressure issues.
B. "Placenta previa is characterized by sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness, while abruptio placentae is associated with painless bleeding."
This is incorrect because placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, while abruptio placentae causes sudden, severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and possibly dark red bleeding.
C. "Placenta previa typically presents with severe pain and contractions, whereas abruptio placentae involves painless bleeding without contractions."
This is incorrect because placenta previa does not cause pain or contractions. In contrast, abruptio placentae often presents with painful contractions and uterine hypertonicity.
D. "Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, whereas abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall."
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers the cervix (partial or complete), leading to bleeding. Abruptio placentae occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall, which can lead to hemorrhage and fetal distress.
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