A nurse is reviewing the different signs of pregnancy with a client who is in her first trimester. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse classify as a positive sign of pregnancy?

Fetal movement felt by provider

Positive pregnancy test

Hegar's sign

Breast tenderness and nausea

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Fetal movement felt by provider
This is correct because fetal movement confirmed by a healthcare provider is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it directly confirms fetal presence.

B. Positive pregnancy test
This is incorrect because a positive pregnancy test is a probable sign, not a positive sign. It detects hCG, which can also be produced in conditions like gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy).

C. Hegar’s sign
This is incorrect because Hegar’s sign (softening of the lower uterus) is a probable sign, not a positive sign, as it can occur due to other physiological changes.

D. Breast tenderness and nausea
This is incorrect because breast tenderness and nausea are presumptive signs of pregnancy, meaning they are subjective symptoms that could be caused by other conditions (e.g., PMS, stress, illness).

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. "There is an increased risk of introducing infection." – While infections can occur, the primary concern with internal examinations in placenta previa is hemorrhage rather than infection.

B. "There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes." – While membrane rupture is a risk with any vaginal examination, it is not the primary concern in placenta previa.

C. "This could result in profound bleeding." – With placenta previa, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix. Digital or speculum exams can disrupt the placenta, causing significant hemorrhage, which is why they are contraindicated.

D. "This could initiate preterm labor." – While stimulation of the cervix could lead to contractions, the primary risk with an internal exam in placenta previa is significant bleeding, not preterm labor.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

A. Assessment Cues

Unprotected Sexual Activity increases the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The client has had multiple sexual partners in the past month without protection, making her susceptible to infections such as trichomoniasis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis. This is a significant risk factor for her symptoms.
Foul-smelling discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis, and other vaginal infections. UTIs primarily cause dysuria, frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain, not vaginal symptoms. Since the urinalysis does not show leukocytes, nitrates, or bacteria, a UTI is unlikely.

B. Condition – Trichomoniasis

The client's symptoms—green-yellow vaginal discharge, vaginal itching, and foul-smelling odor—are classic signs of trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. The disease is associated with malodorous discharge, vaginal irritation, and possible dysuria.

C. Anticipated Solutions

Oral Metronidazole: The first-line treatment for trichomoniasis is oral metronidazole (Flagyl) 2g as a single dose or 500mg twice daily for 7 days. Metronidazole effectively eliminates the infection. Patients must be educated to avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole due to the risk of a disulfiram-like reaction (severe nausea and vomiting).
Safe sexual behaviors, such as consistent condom use, regular STI screening, mutual monogamy, and open communication about sexual history, are essential for reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including trichomoniasis.

Incorrect answers:

Human Papillomavirus (HPV): HPV causes genital warts and increases the risk of cervical cancer, but it does not typically cause vaginal discharge, itching, or foul odor. Therefore, HPV is not the most likely condition in this case.

Depression: While multiple sexual partners and STI diagnoses can cause emotional distress, depression is not directly relevant to her current presentation. However, mental health screening may be beneficial if she expresses concerns about her emotional well-being.

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can cause genital ulcers, pain, and discomfort. However, based on the client’s symptoms, HSV is not the most likely diagnosis.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is reviewing the different signs of pregnancy with a client who is in her first trimester. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse classify as a positive sign of pregnancy?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Exhibits Select a condition, the assessment cues, and anticipated solutions for this client.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy and discovers that the client lacks immunity to rubella based on her blood work. When is the recommended time for administering rubella immunization?

A male client reports to the nurse that he took sildenafil for erectile dysfunction but did not achieve an erection. Which of the following considerations should the nurse evaluate to determine possible reasons for the lack of response?

A client is admitted with a threatened abortion. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? Select all that apply. (Select All that Apply.)

A nurse is reviewing the differences between placenta previa and abruptio placentae with a group of nursing students. Which of the following statements accurately differentiates placenta previa from abruptio placentae?

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client for signs of postpartum depression. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of postpartum depression rather than normal postpartum adjustment?

A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a group of clients with an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse plan to delegate to the AP?

A nurse is reviewing the different signs of pregnancy with a client who is in her first trimester. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse classify as a positive sign of pregnancy?

A nurse is caring for a client who is 5 hr postpartum following a vaginal birth of a newborn weighing 9 lb 6 oz. (4252 g). The nurse should recognize that this client is at risk for which of the following postpartum complications?