Gestational Ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting the ultrasound is to obtain which information?
Fetal growth and gestational age.
Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.
Chromosomal abnormalities.
Sex and size of the infant.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Fetal growth and gestational age. Ultrasound during pregnancy is commonly used to assess fetal growth, development, and gestational age. It allows healthcare providers to monitor the health and progress of the pregnancy, as well as detect any potential issues or abnormalities.
B. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. This ratio is typically assessed in amniotic fluid samples to predict fetal lung maturity, but it's not the primary reason for a routine ultrasound during pregnancy.
C. Chromosomal abnormalities. While some prenatal screening tests, such as nuchal translucency ultrasound or cell-free DNA testing, can help assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities, a routine ultrasound is not primarily conducted for this purpose.
D. Sex and size of the infant. While ultrasound can reveal the sex of the baby and provide estimates of fetal size, these are secondary to the primary goal of assessing fetal growth and gestational age.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Assess subconjunctival colour for pallor. Subconjunctival colour assessment is not directly related to hyperpigmented freckles and is not typically indicated in this scenario.
B. Review serum creatinine results. Serum creatinine levels are not directly related to hyperpigmented freckles unless there are specific concerns about kidney function, which are not mentioned in the scenario.
C. No additional assessment needed. Hyperpigmented freckles are common benign skin findings in older adults and do not typically require further assessment unless there are other concerning symptoms or lesions present.
D. Obtain every 2-hour blood pressure readings. Blood pressure monitoring at such frequent intervals is not indicated based solely on the presence of hyperpigmented freckles.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Capillary refill both feet greater than 3 seconds: Delayed capillary refill indicates poor peripheral perfusion but does not directly correlate with swelling.
B. Pedal pulses weak and thready: Weak and thready pedal pulses indicate poor arterial circulation but do not directly confirm swelling.
C. 2+ pitting edema of ankles bilaterally: Pitting edema is a direct indicator of swelling. A 2+ pitting edema specifically confirms the presence of significant fluid accumulation in the tissues of the ankles.
D. Positive Homan's sign bilaterally: A positive Homan's sign can indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can be associated with swelling but is not a definitive indicator of chronic swelling.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.