If surgery is needed, which procedure would the nurse first prepare the patient for to treat compartment syndrome?
Fasciotomy.
Internal fixation.
Release of tendons.
Amputation.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Fasciotomy is the primary surgical treatment for compartment syndrome, where increased intracompartmental pressure threatens muscle and nerve viability. Incising the fascia relieves pressure, restoring perfusion and preventing necrosis. Prompt preparation for fasciotomy is critical to salvage tissue, avoiding permanent damage or amputation in acute cases from trauma or fractures.
Choice B reason: Internal fixation, used for fracture stabilization, does not address compartment syndrome’s urgent pressure buildup. While fractures may contribute to the condition, fasciotomy is prioritized to relieve pressure. Expecting fixation misguides preparation, risking delayed decompression, which could lead to muscle necrosis, nerve damage, or limb loss.
Choice C reason: Tendon release is not a treatment for compartment syndrome, which involves fascial compartment pressure, not tendon pathology. Fasciotomy targets fascia to relieve pressure. Assuming tendon release misdirects surgical preparation, delaying critical intervention and increasing risks of irreversible tissue damage, chronic pain, or functional loss.
Choice D reason: Amputation is a last resort for compartment syndrome, used only if fasciotomy fails or necrosis is irreversible. Preparing for amputation first overlooks fasciotomy’s potential to save the limb. This assumption risks unnecessary limb loss, misaligning with urgent decompression to restore perfusion and preserve function in acute cases.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Aspirin, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, reducing gastric mucosal protection and increasing ulcer risk. In a client with a history of gastric ulcers, aspirin can exacerbate or reactivate ulcers, leading to bleeding or perforation. This is a contraindication, especially in rheumatoid arthritis patients requiring long-term pain management.
Choice B reason: Glaucoma is not a contraindication for aspirin. Aspirin does not affect intraocular pressure or optic nerve function in glaucoma. Its anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects are safe for pain relief in rheumatoid arthritis, making this an incorrect choice for a contraindication in this context.
Choice C reason: Recent migraine headaches are not a contraindication for aspirin, which is often used to treat migraines due to its analgesic and anti-inflammatory properties. Aspirin may even benefit headache relief in rheumatoid arthritis patients, making this an incorrect choice for a contraindication to its use.
Choice D reason: Amenorrhea, or absence of menstruation, is unrelated to aspirin’s mechanism or side effects. Aspirin’s gastrointestinal, renal, or hematologic risks do not interact with menstrual history. This finding is irrelevant to aspirin safety in rheumatoid arthritis, making it an incorrect contraindication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: An open fracture involves bone piercing the skin, exposing it to the environment, often from high-impact trauma. Osteoporosis causes weakened bones, but a spontaneous hip fracture typically occurs without external trauma or skin breach. This term does not apply, as the fracture results from underlying bone pathology, not an open wound.
Choice B reason: A pathologic fracture occurs in diseased bone, such as in osteoporosis, where reduced bone density causes fragility. A spontaneous hip fracture in this context results from minimal or no trauma, reflecting the weakened bone structure. This documentation accurately describes the fracture’s etiology, linking it to the underlying condition of osteoporosis.
Choice C reason: An oblique fracture describes a diagonal break across the bone, typically from twisting forces. While possible in osteoporosis, the term does not address the spontaneous nature or underlying bone weakness. Pathologic fracture is more specific, as it indicates the fracture’s cause, not just its physical pattern.
Choice D reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break, common in children due to flexible bones, where the bone bends and partially fractures. Osteoporotic hip fractures in adults are typically complete due to brittle bones. This term is inappropriate, as it does not reflect the pathology or spontaneous nature of the injury.
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