In light of current treatment modalities, the nurse should anticipate that the client newly diagnosed with schizophrenia will most likely be prescribed what drug?
Chlorpromazine
Fluphenazine
Haloperidol
Olanzapine
The Correct Answer is D
Schizophrenia is a chronic and severe mental illness that requires lifelong treatment. Antipsychotic medications are the cornerstone of treatment for schizophrenia, and they work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. These medications are effective in reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, and can also improve negative symptoms like apathy and lack of motivation.
While chlorpromazine, fluphenazine, and haloperidol are all first-generation or "typical" antipsychotic medications, they are less commonly used today due to their side effect profile, which can include movement disorders such as tardive dyskinesia. Olanzapine, on the other hand, is a second-generation or "atypical" antipsychotic medication that is commonly used today due to its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, as well as its more favorable side effect profile compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Dextroamphetamine is a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant that is used to treat ADHD and narcolepsy. The drug has a high potential for abuse and dependence, and therefore it carries a black box warning from the FDA. The black box warning is the strongest warning that the FDA requires, and it indicates that a drug has a significant risk of serious or life-threatening adverse effects.
The black box warning for dextroamphetamine relates to its potential for abuse, addiction, and misuse. The drug should only be used as directed by a healthcare provider, and clients should be advised not to share their medication with others or to take more than the prescribed dose. Excessive doses of dextroamphetamine can lead to serious adverse effects, including stroke and heart attack. Clients should also be advised to store their medication securely and to dispose of any unused medication properly.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. An increase in serum lactate – This is a critical laboratory value that can indicate lactic acidosis, a serious side effect associated with metformin, especially in older adults or those with renal impairment. An increase in serum lactate necessitates discontinuation of the medication.
B. A decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit – While this change may indicate anemia, it is not directly associated with the need to discontinue metformin. Further evaluation of the cause of anemia would be necessary.
C. An increase in white blood cells – This could indicate an infection or inflammatory process but does not specifically necessitate the discontinuation of metformin.
D. A decrease in potassium accompanied by an increase in sodium – While electrolyte imbalances should be monitored, this change does not directly indicate that metformin should be discontinued.
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