Lactulose is ordered for a patient with liver disease. What would indicate the medication is exerting a positive therapeutic effect on the patient?
Decreased ascites
Decreased ammonia level
Decreased jaundice
Decreased blood pressure,
The Correct Answer is B
A. Decreased ascites
Ascites (accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity) is more directly related to portal hypertension and liver cirrhosis. While lactulose may contribute to fluid balance, its primary therapeutic effect in hepatic encephalopathy is the reduction of ammonia levels.
B. Decreased ammonia level
Lactulose is a medication commonly used in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy, a condition associated with liver disease. The therapeutic effect of lactulose in this context is to reduce blood ammonia levels. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the form of ammonium ions in the colon, thereby lowering ammonia concentrations in the blood.
C. Decreased jaundice
Jaundice is often associated with liver dysfunction, but lactulose is not primarily used to address jaundice. Its primary role in liver disease is in the management of hepatic encephalopathy.
D. Decreased blood pressure
Blood pressure is not a direct therapeutic target of lactulose in the context of liver disease. Lactulose's primary therapeutic effect is related to reducing ammonia levels and managing hepatic encephalopathy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. As requested by the patient.
Administering the drug only when requested by the patient may not provide adequate prophylaxis against chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. These medications are often prescribed on a schedule to prevent symptoms rather than treating them reactively.
B. 1 hour after chemotherapy administration.
Waiting until 1 hour after chemotherapy administration may not cover the full period during which nausea and vomiting are likely to occur. The administration schedule for antiemetics is often more extended to provide better coverage.
C. The night before the treatment, the day of the treatment, and for 24 hours after the treatment.
This is the correct choice. Administering phenothiazine antiemetics according to this schedule helps ensure continuous coverage during the critical period when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting are most likely to occur.
D. The day of treatment.
Administering the drug only on the day of treatment may not provide sufficient coverage for the entire duration when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can occur. Again, the schedule mentioned in option C is more comprehensive for prevention.
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
A. Blood dyscrasias: This is a correct choice. Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, including conditions like leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and anemia.
B. Hyperglycemia: This is not typically associated with phenytoin. The primary adverse effects related to blood sugar are usually changes in glucose metabolism or hypoglycemia.
C. Urinary retention: This is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin. It is more associated with other medications or medical conditions.
D. Gingival hyperplasia: This is a correct choice. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of the gum tissue.
E. Sedation: This is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin. Phenytoin is more known for causing CNS-related side effects like nystagmus, ataxia, and dizziness.
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