Five months following treatment for herpes zoster, an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

Teach the client about phantom pain symptoms.

Perform a complete mental status exam.

Determine if the client has had a shingles vaccination.

Complete an assessment of the client's pain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

D. Persistent pain following the resolution of herpes zoster, known as postherpetic neuralgia (PHN), is a common complication, especially in older adults. PHN can cause significant discomfort and affect the client's quality of life. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to conduct a comprehensive assessment of the client's pain to better understand its characteristics, severity, duration, aggravating or alleviating factors, and impact on daily activities.
A. Patient education should follow a complete assessment of the pain to ascertain the diagnosis.
B. Performing a complete mental status exam is not indicated solely based on the client's report of persistent pain from herpes zoster.
C. Determining if the client has had a shingles vaccination is important for preventive healthcare, but it is not the priority action in addressing the client's current pain concern related to PHN. The focus should be on assessing and managing the client's pain to improve their comfort and well-being.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Clients receiving thrombolytic therapy are at an increased risk of bleeding, which can manifest as internal bleeding, hemorrhage at vascular access sites, gastrointestinal bleeding, or intracranial bleeding. The nurse's priority is to closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bleeding, such as sudden onset or worsening of headache, changes in level of consciousness, hematuria, melena, ecchymosis, or hematoma formation.
B. While activity intolerance is a common nursing diagnosis for clients following an acute myocardial infarction due to myocardial ischemia, it is not the priority in this case where the client is actively receiving thrombolytic therapy.
C. While respiratory complications can occur following thrombolytic therapy, such as pulmonary embolism or bleeding into the lungs, the risk of bleeding complications takes precedence as the priority nursing problem for this client.
D. Education about the new medication regimen is important for client understanding and adherence, but it is not the priority nursing problem in the immediate post-thrombolytic therapy period.

A. Hold the next dose of lactulose. B. Continue the prescribed dose of lactulose. C. Replace total volume voided with oral or IV fluids. D. Report the number of diarrhea stools to the healthcare provider (HCP).

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Lactulose works by acidifying the colonic contents, which promotes the conversion of ammonia (NH3) to ammonium (NH4+). Ammonium is less readily absorbed from the colon into the bloodstream, reducing systemic ammonia levels. This action helps alleviate the neurotoxic effects of ammonia on the brain, thereby improving neurological symptoms associated with hepatic encephalopathy.
A. Lactulose is required in clients with hepatic encephalopathy to excrete ammonia lowering its levels in blood. Holding the lactulose dose is inappropriate as the client’s ammonia levels are still high
C. Rehydrating the clients to replace lost fluids in the loose stools is important but does not address
the client’s elevated ammonia levels which may be exacerbating the client’s encephalopathy.
D. Reporting the number of diarrhea stools to the healthcare provider is important for ongoing assessment and management of the client's condition. However, it does not address the clients high ammonia levels.

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Five months following treatment for herpes zoster, an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client receiving thrombolytic therapy following an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which nursing problem should the nurse identify as priority for this client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Patient Data Exhibits For each client activity, click to indicate whether the activity shows positive or negative health promotion postamputation due to extensive peripheral vascular disease.

A client with draining skin lesions of the lower extremity is admitted with possible methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What nursing intervention (s) should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives to the clinic reporting episodes of weakness and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to monitor?

The healthcare provider prescribes regular insulin 10 units/hr IV. The IV solution contains 100 units of regular insulin in 100 mL of 0.9% normal saline. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump? (Enter numerical value only.)

Review H and P, nurse's note, and laboratory results. Click to mark whether the client statement indicates understanding or no understanding of the education given

A client is hospitalized with an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) exacerbation and is being treated with a corticosteroid. The client develops a rigid abdomen with rebound lendemess. Which action should the nurse take?

Five months following treatment for herpes zoster, an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

A client has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 500/mm3 (0.5 x 10/L) after completing chemotherapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? Reference Range: Neutrophils (ANC) [2.500 to 5,800/mm (2.5 to 5.8 x 10/L)]