“A nurse is caring for a patient who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a confirmed intrauterine fetal demise. Which of the following treatment options should the nurse anticipate the provider to discuss with the patient?”

“Scheduled induction of labor.”.

“Immediate cesarean birth.”.

“Administration of methotrexate.”.

“Dilation with suction curettage.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale
In the case of intrauterine fetal demise at 36 weeks of gestation, the most common treatment option is induction of labor.
Choice B rationale
An immediate cesarean birth is typically not the first choice of treatment for intrauterine fetal demise unless there are other complications.
Choice C rationale
Methotrexate is used to treat ectopic pregnancies, not intrauterine fetal demise.
Choice D rationale
Dilation with suction curettage is typically used for early pregnancy loss, not late-term intrauterine fetal demise.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Peripheral edema 2+ in bilateral lower extremities is a common finding in the postpartum period and does not necessarily indicate a problem. It can result from the normal fluid shifts that occur after delivery.
Choice B rationale
A blood pressure reading of 136/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated and could indicate the development of postpartum hypertension, a condition that can lead to serious complications such as stroke. This finding necessitates immediate follow-up.
Choice C rationale
Lateral deviation of the uterus could indicate a full bladder, which can interfere with uterine contractions and lead to increased bleeding. This finding necessitates immediate follow-up.
Choice D rationale
Deep tendon reflexes 1+ are within normal limits and do not necessitate immediate follow-up.
Choice E rationale
A large amount of lochia rubra could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a potentially life- threatening condition. This finding necessitates immediate follow-up.

A. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and reports frequent urination. B. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports periodic tingling of the fingers. C. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and reports back pain following intercourse. D. A client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and reports severe vomiting.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Frequent urination is a common symptom in early pregnancy due to increased blood flow to the woman’s kidneys. While it can be inconvenient, it is usually not a sign of a serious problem.
Choice B rationale
Periodic tingling of the fingers can be a symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome, which is common during pregnancy due to fluid retention causing pressure on the median nerve. While it can be uncomfortable, it is usually not a serious concern.
Choice C rationale
Back pain following intercourse can be a normal symptom of pregnancy due to hormonal changes and stretching of ligaments. It is usually not a cause for immediate concern.
Choice D rationale
Severe vomiting in early pregnancy could be a sign of hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and weight loss. This is a potentially serious condition that requires immediate medical attention.

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“A nurse is caring for a patient who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a confirmed intrauterine fetal demise. Which of the following treatment options should the nurse anticipate the provider to discuss with the patient?”

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse has been monitoring a client who gave birth vaginally 8 hours ago. Based on the nurse’s notes at 0700 and 1100, select the three findings that necessitate immediate follow-up.

Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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