A client with a history of seizures is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which instruction does the nurse give the client before the test?

You may bring some music to listen to for distraction.

Do not take any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test.

You will need to have someone to drive you home.

Please do not have anything to eat or drink after midnight.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A: You May Bring Some Music to Listen to for Distraction

Bringing music for distraction is generally not a standard instruction given before an EEG. While listening to music might help some patients relax, it is not a critical part of the preparation for the test. The primary focus of EEG preparation is to ensure accurate readings of brain activity, which can be influenced by various factors such as medication and sleep.

Choice B: Do Not Take Any Sedatives 12 to 24 Hours Before the Test

Avoiding sedatives before an EEG is crucial because these medications can alter brain activity and affect the test results. Sedatives can suppress the electrical activity in the brain, leading to inaccurate readings. Therefore, it is essential for patients to avoid taking any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test to ensure the EEG captures the brain’s natural activity.

Choice C: You Will Need to Have Someone to Drive You Home

This instruction is typically given if the patient is expected to be sedated or if the test involves procedures that might impair their ability to drive. However, for a standard EEG, patients are usually not sedated, and there is no need for someone to drive them home. This instruction is more relevant for other types of medical procedures that involve sedation.

Choice D: Please Do Not Have Anything to Eat or Drink After Midnight

Fasting is not a standard requirement for an EEG. Patients are generally allowed to eat and drink before the test. However, they are often advised to avoid caffeine as it can affect brain activity. The instruction to avoid food and drink after midnight is more commonly associated with procedures that require anesthesia or sedation, not an EEG.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","G"]

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Breath sounds diminished on auscultation indicate that there may still be fluid or air in the pleural space, suggesting that the chest tube is still needed to drain the pleural cavity. This is not an appropriate reason to discontinue a chest tube as it indicates ongoing issues that need to be resolved.

Choice B Reason:

Improved respiratory status is a key indicator that the chest tube has successfully resolved the underlying issue, such as a pneumothorax or pleural effusion. When the patient shows signs of stable and improved breathing, it suggests that the chest tube has served its purpose and can be safely removed.

Choice C Reason:

Symmetrical rise and fall of the chest during respiration indicate that both lungs are expanding and contracting normally. This symmetry is a sign that the pleural space is no longer compromised, making it an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.

Choice D Reason:

Oxygen saturation at least 90% is a general indicator of adequate oxygenation but does not specifically address the condition of the pleural space. While important, it is not a direct reason to discontinue a chest tube without other supporting signs.

Choice E Reason:

Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an ongoing air leak, which means that the chest tube is still necessary to evacuate air from the pleural space. This is not an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.

Choice F Reason:

An asymmetrical chest on inspiration and expiration suggests that there is still an issue with lung expansion, possibly due to fluid or air in the pleural space. This condition requires the chest tube to remain in place until resolved.

Choice G Reason:

Bilateral breath sounds clear on auscultation indicate that both lungs are free of fluid and air, and are functioning normally. This is a strong indicator that the chest tube has achieved its purpose and can be safely removed.

A. Monitor for hypernatremia. B. Monitor neuro status. C. Monitor for hyponatremia. D. Monitor urine specific gravity. E. Monitor strict I&O.

Correct Answer is ["A"]

Explanation

Choice A: Monitor for hypernatremia.

Hypernatremia, or high sodium levels in the blood, is a common complication of diabetes insipidus due to excessive water loss and insufficient water intake. Monitoring for hypernatremia involves regular blood tests to check sodium levels. Symptoms of hypernatremia include extreme thirst, confusion, muscle twitching, and seizures. Early detection and management are crucial to prevent severe complications.

Choice B: Monitor neuro status.

Monitoring neurological status is essential in patients with diabetes insipidus because severe hypernatremia can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, irritability, seizures, and even coma. Regular assessments of mental status, level of consciousness, and neurological function help in early detection of complications and timely intervention.

Choice C: Monitor for hyponatremia.

While hyponatremia (low sodium levels) is less common in diabetes insipidus, it can occur if there is excessive water intake without adequate sodium replacement. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and seizures. Monitoring sodium levels helps in maintaining a balance and preventing complications.

Choice D: Monitor urine specific gravity.

Urine specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine. In diabetes insipidus, urine is typically very dilute, with a specific gravity of less than 1.005. Regular monitoring helps in assessing the effectiveness of treatment and the patient’s hydration status. It also aids in differentiating diabetes insipidus from other conditions with similar symptoms.

Choice E: Monitor strict I&O.

Strict monitoring of intake and output (I&O) is crucial in managing diabetes insipidus. This involves accurately measuring all fluids consumed and excreted to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance. It helps in identifying trends in fluid loss and guiding appropriate fluid replacement therapy.

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A client with a history of seizures is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which instruction does the nurse give the client before the test?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The provider writes an order for a client to have a chest tube removed. Which of the following are appropriate reasons to discontinue a chest tube? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["B","C","G"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A"]

Explanation

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