After teaching a nursing student about mitral valve stenosis and mitral valve regurgitation, the nurse identifies effective learning when the student identifies which common feature of both disorders?

Hemoptysis

High-pitched holosystolic murmur

Hepatomegaly

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason:

Hemoptysis, or coughing up blood, is a common feature of both mitral valve stenosis and mitral valve regurgitation. In mitral valve stenosis, the narrowing of the valve leads to increased pressure in the pulmonary veins, which can cause pulmonary congestion and hemoptysis. Similarly, in mitral valve regurgitation, the backflow of blood into the left atrium increases pulmonary pressure, potentially leading to pulmonary edema and hemoptysis. Therefore, hemoptysis is a shared symptom of both conditions.

Choice B Reason:

A high-pitched holosystolic murmur is more commonly associated with mitral valve regurgitation rather than mitral valve stenosis. In mitral valve regurgitation, the murmur is caused by the backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium during systole3. Mitral valve stenosis, on the other hand, typically presents with a diastolic murmur due to the turbulent flow of blood through the narrowed valve during diastole. Therefore, a high-pitched holosystolic murmur is not a common feature of both disorders.

Choice C Reason:

Hepatomegaly, or an enlarged liver, can occur in advanced cases of both mitral valve stenosis and mitral valve regurgitation due to right-sided heart failure. However, it is not a primary or common feature of these conditions. Hepatomegaly is more often associated with conditions that directly affect the right side of the heart or cause systemic congestion. Therefore, hepatomegaly is not a common feature of both mitral valve stenosis and mitral valve regurgitation.

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Correct Answer is ["A","J"]

Explanation

Intervention: Validate that informed consent has been given by the client.

Reason: Before any invasive procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This means the client understands the procedure, its risks, benefits, and any potential complications. Validating informed consent is a legal and ethical requirement that ensures the client is making an informed decision about their care12.

Assessment: The trachea is shifted away from the midline of the neck.

Reason: A tracheal shift is a critical finding that warrants immediate action. It can indicate a tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space and causes the lung to collapse. This shift can compromise respiratory function and requires urgent intervention34.

Choice B: Pulse oximetry is 93% on 2 L of oxygen.

Reason: While a pulse oximetry reading of 93% on 2 liters of oxygen is slightly below the normal range (95-100%), it is not immediately life-threatening. However, it does indicate that the client may need further evaluation and monitoring to ensure adequate oxygenation.

Choice C: The client rates pain as 8/10 at the site of the procedure.

Reason: Pain management is important, but an 8/10 pain rating at the procedure site, while significant, does not require immediate action compared to a tracheal shift. Pain can be managed with appropriate analgesics as ordered by the physician.

Choice D: Request an order for pain medication.

Reason: Requesting an order for pain medication is a necessary intervention for managing the client’s pain, but it is not as urgent as addressing a tracheal shift. Pain management should be part of the overall care plan.

Choice E: Measure oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk.

Reason: Measuring oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk is a useful assessment to evaluate the client’s respiratory function and endurance. However, it is not an immediate priority compared to ensuring informed consent and addressing critical findings.

Choice F: Explain the procedure in detail to the client and the family.

Reason: Explaining the procedure in detail to the client and their family is essential for informed consent and reducing anxiety. It ensures that the client understands what to expect and can make an informed decision about their care.

Choice G: Assist the client to the bathroom.

Reason: Assisting the client to the bathroom is a routine nursing intervention that ensures the client’s comfort and dignity. However, it is not a priority compared to addressing critical findings and ensuring informed consent.

Choice H: Discuss all possible complications with the client.

Reason: Discussing all possible complications with the client is part of the informed consent process. It ensures that the client is aware of potential risks and can make an informed decision about their care.

Choice I: A small amount of drainage from the site is noted.

Reason: Noting a small amount of drainage from the site is an important assessment, but it is not as urgent as addressing a tracheal shift. The drainage should be monitored and documented, and any significant changes should be reported to the physician.

A. Client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked. B. Client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated. C. Client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12. D. Client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

The client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked is exhibiting a normal reflex response known as the plantar reflex. This response indicates that the corticospinal tract is functioning properly. In adults, the normal response is plantar flexion of the toes, which means the toes curl downward. This is not an immediate cause for concern and does not indicate a life-threatening condition.

Choice B Reason:

The client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated is showing signs of severe brain injury. Decorticate posturing is characterized by the arms being flexed at the elbows and held tightly to the chest, with the legs extended and feet turned inward. This type of posturing indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres, thalamus, or midbrain. While this is a serious condition, it is not necessarily the most immediate priority compared to a sudden change in the Glasgow Coma Scale.

Choice C Reason:

The client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12 is the nurse’s first priority. The GCS is a critical tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness, with scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake and alert). A drop in GCS score indicates a significant decline in neurological function, which could be due to increased intracranial pressure, bleeding, or other acute changes in the brain. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further deterioration.

Choice D Reason:

The client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive is showing signs of hyperreflexia. Hyperactive reflexes can indicate an upper motor neuron lesion, which affects the descending corticospinal tract. While this is a concerning sign that warrants further investigation, it is not as immediately critical as a sudden change in the GCS score.

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After teaching a nursing student about mitral valve stenosis and mitral valve regurgitation, the nurse identifies effective learning when the student identifies which common feature of both disorders?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","J"]

Explanation

The nurse has just received a report on a group of clients on the neurosurgical unit. Which client is the nurse’s first priority?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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