The nurse is taking care of a client diagnosed with advanced liver disease with hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose (Cephulac) is administered to the patient to reduce which of the following?
Ammonia
Muscle rigidity
Seizures
Drooling at times
Mask-like facial expression
Shuffled gait
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A: Ammonia
Lactulose is administered to patients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce the levels of ammonia in the blood. Hepatic encephalopathy occurs due to the liver’s inability to detoxify ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism. Lactulose works by converting ammonia into ammonium, which is then excreted in the stool. This helps to lower blood ammonia levels and alleviate the symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy.
Choice B: Dysarthria
Dysarthria, or difficulty in articulating words, is a common symptom of Parkinson’s disease. It results from the muscle rigidity and bradykinesia (slowness of movement) that affect the muscles involved in speech. Patients with Parkinson’s often have a soft, monotone voice and may struggle with the clarity of their speech.
Choice C: Muscle Rigidity
Muscle rigidity is one of the hallmark symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. It refers to the stiffness and inflexibility of the muscles, which can affect any part of the body. This rigidity can lead to discomfort and pain, and it contributes to the characteristic stooped posture and shuffling gait seen in Parkinson’s patients.
Choice D: Seizures
Seizures are not typically associated with Parkinson’s disease. While Parkinson’s affects the central nervous system, it primarily impacts motor function rather than causing seizure activity. Therefore, this is not a common finding in Parkinson’s patients.
Choice E: Drooling at Times
Drooling, or sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson’s disease. It occurs due to the decreased ability to swallow saliva, which can result from muscle rigidity and bradykinesia affecting the muscles involved in swallowing. This can be particularly bothersome for patients and may require management strategies.
Choice F: Mask-like Facial Expression
A mask-like facial expression, also known as hypomimia, is a common feature of Parkinson’s disease. It results from the rigidity and bradykinesia affecting the facial muscles, leading to reduced facial expressions and a fixed, staring appearance.
Choice G: Shuffled Gait
A shuffled gait is a characteristic feature of Parkinson’s disease. Patients often take small, shuffling steps and may have difficulty initiating movement. This gait pattern is due to the combination of muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability.
Choice H: Stooped Posture
Stooped posture is another common symptom of Parkinson’s disease. It results from the muscle rigidity and postural instability that affect the patient’s ability to maintain an upright position. This can lead to a forward-leaning posture and balance issues.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","J"]
Explanation
Intervention: Validate that informed consent has been given by the client.
Reason: Before any invasive procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This means the client understands the procedure, its risks, benefits, and any potential complications. Validating informed consent is a legal and ethical requirement that ensures the client is making an informed decision about their care12.
Assessment: The trachea is shifted away from the midline of the neck.
Reason: A tracheal shift is a critical finding that warrants immediate action. It can indicate a tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space and causes the lung to collapse. This shift can compromise respiratory function and requires urgent intervention34.
Choice B: Pulse oximetry is 93% on 2 L of oxygen.
Reason: While a pulse oximetry reading of 93% on 2 liters of oxygen is slightly below the normal range (95-100%), it is not immediately life-threatening. However, it does indicate that the client may need further evaluation and monitoring to ensure adequate oxygenation.
Choice C: The client rates pain as 8/10 at the site of the procedure.
Reason: Pain management is important, but an 8/10 pain rating at the procedure site, while significant, does not require immediate action compared to a tracheal shift. Pain can be managed with appropriate analgesics as ordered by the physician.
Choice D: Request an order for pain medication.
Reason: Requesting an order for pain medication is a necessary intervention for managing the client’s pain, but it is not as urgent as addressing a tracheal shift. Pain management should be part of the overall care plan.
Choice E: Measure oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk.
Reason: Measuring oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk is a useful assessment to evaluate the client’s respiratory function and endurance. However, it is not an immediate priority compared to ensuring informed consent and addressing critical findings.
Choice F: Explain the procedure in detail to the client and the family.
Reason: Explaining the procedure in detail to the client and their family is essential for informed consent and reducing anxiety. It ensures that the client understands what to expect and can make an informed decision about their care.
Choice G: Assist the client to the bathroom.
Reason: Assisting the client to the bathroom is a routine nursing intervention that ensures the client’s comfort and dignity. However, it is not a priority compared to addressing critical findings and ensuring informed consent.
Choice H: Discuss all possible complications with the client.
Reason: Discussing all possible complications with the client is part of the informed consent process. It ensures that the client is aware of potential risks and can make an informed decision about their care.
Choice I: A small amount of drainage from the site is noted.
Reason: Noting a small amount of drainage from the site is an important assessment, but it is not as urgent as addressing a tracheal shift. The drainage should be monitored and documented, and any significant changes should be reported to the physician.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Pronation of the hands.
Pronation of the hands is not typically associated with decorticate posturing. Decorticate posturing is characterized by the flexion of the arms and wrists, with the hands often clenched into fists. Pronation refers to the rotation of the hands so that the palms face downward, which is not a feature of decorticate posturing.
Choice B Reason:
Extension of the arms.
Extension of the arms is more characteristic of decerebrate posturing, not decorticate posturing. In decorticate posturing, the arms are flexed and held tightly to the chest, not extended. This flexion is due to damage to the cerebral hemispheres, which affects the corticospinal tract.
Choice C Reason:
External rotation of the lower extremities.
External rotation of the lower extremities is not a typical finding in decorticate posturing. In decorticate posturing, the legs are usually extended and rigid, with the toes pointed. External rotation would indicate a different type of posturing or neurological condition.
Choice D Reason:
Plantar flexion of the legs.
Plantar flexion of the legs is a characteristic finding in decorticate posturing. This involves the toes pointing downward, which is a result of the increased muscle tone and reflexes due to the brain injury. This posture indicates severe damage to the brain, specifically the corticospinal tract.
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