A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who asks what her estimated date of delivery will be if her last menstrual period was May 4, 2022.
Which of the following is the appropriate response by the nurse?
February 11, 2023
February 27, 2023
April 11, 2023
April 27, 2023
The Correct Answer is A
Based on your last menstrual period (LMP) of May 4, 2022, your estimated date of delivery (EDD) would be around February 11, 2023."
Rationale:
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Calculating the Estimated Date of Delivery (EDD): The EDD can be calculated using Naegele's Rule, which is a standard method used to estimate the due date. The rule involves subtracting three months from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), adding seven days, and adjusting the year if necessary.
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Application of Naegele’s Rule:
- Start with the first day of the LMP: May 4, 2022.
- Subtract three months: February 4, 2022.
- Add seven days: February 11, 2022.
- Since the year needs to be adjusted, the EDD is February 11, 2023.
Key Points:
- Naegele’s Rule is commonly used but assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle and ovulation on the 14th day. Variations in cycle length can affect the accuracy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Instructing the client to avoid alcohol for 72 hr after treatment is a common instruction given when a client is prescribed certain medications, such as metronidazole, due to the potential for a disulfiram-like reaction. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s symptoms of inflamed labia majora and minora and a large amount of frothy, yellow-green, malodorous discharge.
Choice B rationale
The client’s symptoms are indicative of Trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. Metronidazole is a medication commonly used to treat this infection. A single dose of 2 g orally is a typical treatment regimen.
Choice C rationale
An oatmeal sitz bath can help soothe irritated skin and reduce inflammation, but it does not treat the underlying cause of the client’s symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Recommending the client’s partner receive treatment is important in cases of sexually transmitted infections to prevent reinfection. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s immediate need for treatment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypertension is the most common risk factor for placental abruption. Placental abruption occurs when the placenta partly or completely separates from the inner wall of the uterus before delivery. This can decrease or block the baby’s supply of oxygen and nutrients and cause heavy bleeding in the mother. Chronic high blood pressure (hypertension) is a known risk factor for placental abruption.
Choice B rationale
While blunt force trauma can be a cause of placental abruption, it is not the most common risk factor. Trauma or injury to the abdomen can cause placental abruption, but hypertension is a more common risk factor.
Choice C rationale
Cigarette smoking is a known risk factor for placental abruption, but it is not the most common risk factor. Smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of placental abruption, but hypertension is a more common risk factor.
Choice D rationale
Cocaine use is a known risk factor for placental abruption, but it is not the most common risk factor. Use of cocaine during pregnancy can increase the risk of placental abruption, but hypertension is a more common risk factor.
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