A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior positions
The Correct Answer is A
A. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
A. The lowermost portion of the fetus being at the level of the ischial spines is the correct interpretation of 0 station. In the station system, when the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines, it is referred to as 0 station.
B. The largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet is generally represented by the complete passage of the fetus through the birth canal. This is more indicative of full cervical dilation (10 cm) rather than a specific station.
C. The posterior fontanel being palpable is not directly related to the concept of station. Fontanel palpation is more associated with determining fetal head position.
D. The fetal head being in the left occiput posterior position is related to fetal position, not station. The station describes the descent of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Blood pressure 80/56 mm Hg.
A. A blood pressure of 80/56 mm Hg is the priority finding. Opioid analgesia can cause hypotension, and addressing low blood pressure is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider promptly and implement interventions to improve blood pressure.
B. Profuse itching is a common side effect of opioids and is generally not considered a priority unless it becomes severe or is accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
C. A temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) may indicate a fever, but addressing hypotension takes precedence. Elevated temperature can be further assessed but is not the priority in this scenario.
D. The client reporting weakness of the lower extremities is a concerning symptom, but the priority is to address hypotension first, as it could be related to opioid-induced hypotension.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Variable decelerations.
A. Accelerations in the fetal heart rate are generally considered reassuring. Accelerations are an indication of fetal well-being and are often seen in response to fetal movement.
B. Early decelerations are typically associated with head compression during contractions and are considered a normal response to the pressure on the fetal head.
C. Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency.
Late decelerations occur after the peak of the contraction and are associated with inadequate oxygenation to the fetus. This pattern raises concerns about the baby's well-being.
D. Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression.
Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate that vary in duration, depth, and timing. They often coincide with contractions and suggest compression or occlusion of the umbilical cord.
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