A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior positions
The Correct Answer is A
A. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
A. The lowermost portion of the fetus being at the level of the ischial spines is the correct interpretation of 0 station. In the station system, when the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines, it is referred to as 0 station.
B. The largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet is generally represented by the complete passage of the fetus through the birth canal. This is more indicative of full cervical dilation (10 cm) rather than a specific station.
C. The posterior fontanel being palpable is not directly related to the concept of station. Fontanel palpation is more associated with determining fetal head position.
D. The fetal head being in the left occiput posterior position is related to fetal position, not station. The station describes the descent of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 20 g/dL is elevated, but this can be a normal finding in a newborn and does not necessarily require immediate intervention.
Choice B Reason:
Total bilirubin of 5 mg/dL is within the normal range for a 24-hour-old newborn.
Choice C Reason:
Blood glucose 30 mg/dL. A blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL is significantly lower than the normal range for a newborn. Hypoglycemia in a newborn can lead to neurologic complications, so it is important to report this result promptly for further evaluation and intervention.
Choice D Reason:
White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm³ is within the expected range for a newborn and is not a cause for immediate concern. Newborns often have higher WBC counts shortly after birth.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
"I will get injections of the medication once daily until my labor stops." Terbutaline is typically administered as a subcutaneous injection or orally, but the frequency can vary. It is often given as needed or on a scheduled basis, depending on the healthcare provider's instructions. However, "once daily until labor stops" is not a typical approach.
Choice B Reason:
"My blood sugar may be low while I'm on this medication." While terbutaline can affect glucose metabolism, it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia (low blood sugar).
Choice C Reason:
"I will have blood tests because my potassium might decrease." Terbutaline, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can potentially lead to hypokalemia (a decrease in potassium levels). Monitoring potassium levels through blood tests is important during terbutaline therapy.
Choice D Reason:
"My blood pressure may increase while I'm on this medication." Terbutaline is known to cause cardiovascular side effects, but an increase in blood pressure is not a common effect. It is more associated with tachycardia (increased heart rate) and potential hypotension. Monitoring blood pressure is still important, but an increase is less likely compared to other cardiovascular effects.
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