A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation.
What condition is the client most likely experiencing, what are 2 actions the nurse should take to address that
condition, and what are 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress?
The client is experiencing preterm labor.
The nurse should administer prescribed medication and encourage bed rest.
The nurse should monitor contraction frequency and fetal heart rate.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice C rationale:
Monitoring contraction frequency is essential to assess the progression of labor. Contractions are the tightening and relaxing of the uterine muscles that help to dilate the cervix and push the baby down the birth canal. The frequency of contractions is measured in minutes from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next. As labor progresses, contractions become more frequent, regular, and intense. Monitoring contraction frequency helps the nurse to determine the stage of labor, assess the effectiveness of interventions, and identify any potential complications.
Monitoring fetal heart rate is crucial to assess the well-being of the baby during labor. The fetal heart rate is normally between 110 and 160 beats per minute. A normal fetal heart rate indicates that the baby is getting enough oxygen and is not in distress. Variations in the fetal heart rate, such as decelerations or tachycardia, can indicate potential problems and may require intervention.
Choice A rationale:
Preterm labor is defined as labor that begins before 37 weeks of gestation. The client in this scenario is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered term. Therefore, preterm labor is not the most likely condition.
Choice B rationale:
The administration of medication and bed rest may be appropriate interventions for preterm labor, but they are not the most appropriate interventions for a client in labor at 38 weeks of gestation. At this stage of pregnancy, labor is considered to be full-term, and interventions are focused on supporting the normal labor process and ensuring the safety of the mother and baby.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
2+ patellar reflex: A hyperactive patellar reflex (also known as a knee-jerk reflex) is a sign of hyperreflexia, which can be a neurological symptom of preeclampsia. Hyperreflexia results from heightened nerve excitability and can manifest as exaggerated reflexes. In preeclampsia, it stems from central nervous system irritability due to cerebral edema or other neurological disturbances.
2+ proteinuria: Proteinuria, defined as the presence of excessive protein in the urine, is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia. It indicates glomerular damage in the kidneys, leading to protein leakage into the urine. The degree of proteinuria is graded on a scale of 1+ to 4+, with 2+ representing a significant level that warrants immediate attention.
Choice B rationale:
24 weeks of gestation: While 24 weeks of gestation is considered early preterm birth, it is not inherently a finding that requires immediate reporting to the RN in the context of postpartum care. The focus on the postpartum unit is primarily on the health of the mother and newborn after delivery, rather than managing ongoing pregnancies.
Choice C rationale:
Preeclampsia: While preeclampsia is a serious condition that necessitates close monitoring and management, the mere diagnosis of preeclampsia without additional concerning findings does not automatically require immediate reporting to the RN. It's essential to assess for specific signs and symptoms that indicate worsening or complications of preeclampsia, such as those mentioned in Choice A.
Choice D rationale:
Heart rate of 100/min: A heart rate of 100 beats per minute is within the normal range for adults, even postpartum. Mild tachycardia (increased heart rate) can be a physiological response to various factors such as pain, anxiety, or exertion, and it does not always signify a serious problem. However, if the heart rate is persistently elevated or accompanied by other concerning symptoms, it would warrant further evaluation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice D.
Choice A rationale: A fundus that is firm and 4 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus 24 hours postpartum indicates uterine atony or retained placental fragments. This finding is not typical and may require further medical evaluation to prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale: A soft fundus 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract effectively after childbirth.
Choice C rationale: A soft fundus to the right of the umbilicus may indicate a full bladder pushing the uterus to one side. It can interfere with uterine contractions and should be addressed by encouraging the client to empty their bladder.
Choice D rationale: A firm fundus at 1 fingerbreadth below the umbilicus is the expected finding 24 hours postpartum. It indicates that the uterus is contracting well and returning to its pre-pregnancy size, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
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