The provider writes an order for a client to have a chest tube removed. Which of the following are appropriate reasons to discontinue a chest tube? Select all that apply.
Breath sounds diminished on auscultation.
Improved respiratory status.
Symmetrical rise and fall of the chest.
Oxygen saturation at least 90%.
Continuous bubbling in water seal chamber.
Chest is asymmetrical on inspiration and expiration.
Bilateral breath sounds clear on auscultation.
Correct Answer : B,C,G
Choice A Reason:
Breath sounds diminished on auscultation indicate that there may still be fluid or air in the pleural space, suggesting that the chest tube is still needed to drain the pleural cavity. This is not an appropriate reason to discontinue a chest tube as it indicates ongoing issues that need to be resolved.
Choice B Reason:
Improved respiratory status is a key indicator that the chest tube has successfully resolved the underlying issue, such as a pneumothorax or pleural effusion. When the patient shows signs of stable and improved breathing, it suggests that the chest tube has served its purpose and can be safely removed.
Choice C Reason:
Symmetrical rise and fall of the chest during respiration indicate that both lungs are expanding and contracting normally. This symmetry is a sign that the pleural space is no longer compromised, making it an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.
Choice D Reason:
Oxygen saturation at least 90% is a general indicator of adequate oxygenation but does not specifically address the condition of the pleural space. While important, it is not a direct reason to discontinue a chest tube without other supporting signs.
Choice E Reason:
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an ongoing air leak, which means that the chest tube is still necessary to evacuate air from the pleural space. This is not an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.
Choice F Reason:
An asymmetrical chest on inspiration and expiration suggests that there is still an issue with lung expansion, possibly due to fluid or air in the pleural space. This condition requires the chest tube to remain in place until resolved.
Choice G Reason:
Bilateral breath sounds clear on auscultation indicate that both lungs are free of fluid and air, and are functioning normally. This is a strong indicator that the chest tube has achieved its purpose and can be safely removed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Cool, clammy skin is a common symptom in patients with atrial fibrillation, especially when the heart rate is very high. This symptom occurs due to decreased cardiac output, which leads to poor perfusion of the skin. When the heart is beating too fast, it doesn’t have enough time to fill properly, resulting in less blood being pumped out to the body. This can cause the skin to feel cool and clammy as the body tries to compensate for the reduced blood flow.
Choice B Reason:
Respiratory rate of 20 is within the normal range for adults, which is typically 12-20 breaths per minute. While it is important to monitor respiratory rate in patients with atrial fibrillation, a rate of 20 does not indicate any immediate distress or abnormality. Therefore, this choice is not particularly relevant to the assessment of a patient with a heart rate of 143 beats/min due to atrial fibrillation.
Choice C Reason:
Flushing of the skin is not a typical symptom associated with atrial fibrillation. Flushing can occur due to various reasons such as fever, anxiety, or certain medications, but it is not directly linked to the high heart rate or the irregular rhythm seen in atrial fibrillation. Therefore, this choice is not applicable in this context.
Choice D Reason:
Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a significant concern in patients with atrial fibrillation, especially when the heart rate is very high. The rapid heart rate can lead to decreased cardiac output, as the heart does not have enough time to fill properly between beats. This can result in lower blood pressure, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, and fatigue. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial in managing patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent complications.
Choice E Reason:
Chest discomfort is a common symptom in patients with atrial fibrillation, particularly when the heart rate is very high. The irregular and rapid heart rate can cause the heart to work harder, leading to increased oxygen demand and potentially reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle. This imbalance can result in chest pain or discomfort, which is a warning sign that the heart is under stress. It is important to assess and address chest discomfort promptly to prevent further cardiac complications.
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Suction equipment at the bedside.
Having suction equipment at the bedside is crucial for a client with status epilepticus. During a seizure, there is a risk of aspiration due to excessive salivation or vomiting. Suction equipment allows the nurse to quickly clear the airway, preventing aspiration and ensuring the client can breathe properly. This precaution is essential to maintain the client’s airway and prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia.
Choice B Reason:
Continuous sedation.
Continuous sedation is not typically a standard precaution for all clients with status epilepticus. While sedation may be necessary in some cases to control seizures, it is not a universal precaution. The primary goal is to stop the seizure activity and stabilize the client. Continuous sedation may be used in specific situations under close medical supervision, but it is not a general precaution that nurses implement for all clients with status epilepticus.
Choice C Reason:
Side rails padded.
Padding the side rails of the bed is an important precaution to prevent injury during a seizure. Clients experiencing seizures may have uncontrolled movements, which can lead to injury if they hit the hard surfaces of the bed. Padded side rails help to cushion these impacts, reducing the risk of bruises, cuts, or fractures. This precaution is essential for ensuring the client’s safety during seizure activity.
Choice D Reason:
Bed in low position.
Keeping the bed in a low position is another important safety measure. If a client with status epilepticus were to fall out of bed during a seizure, the lower height reduces the risk of serious injury. This precaution helps to minimize the impact of any potential falls, ensuring the client’s safety. It is a simple yet effective measure to prevent harm during seizure episodes.
Choice E Reason:
Intravenous (IV) access.
Establishing intravenous (IV) access is critical for a client with status epilepticus. IV access allows for the rapid administration of medications needed to control seizures and manage the client’s condition. In an emergency, quick access to the bloodstream is essential for delivering life-saving treatments. This precaution ensures that the medical team can promptly and effectively intervene to stop the seizure activity.
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